(-1)^2 = 1
(-1)^3 = -1
(-1)^4 = 1
...
(-1)∞^= 1 or -1?
And why so? I need a mathematical proof.
2007-03-28 04:38:46 · 6 answers · asked by randomdude 3 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
You aren't going to get a legitimate one. Mathematics does not handle the concept of zero or infinity terribly well. For example, if you multiply a value 'n' by infinity, then divide by infinty again, the value of 'n' need no longer be what it was to begin with. In order to deal with an infinity in an equation, you need to find a way to cancel it out of the operation.
2007-03-28 04:49:02 · answer #1 · answered by Ian I 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
As â is neither even or odd, (-1)^â is indeterminate. This is the same as asking the value of the following.
â
Σ (-1)^n
n=0
2007-03-28 11:42:17 · answer #2 · answered by math freak 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Indeterminate
2007-03-28 11:46:08 · answer #3 · answered by just got curious 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Be vary wary of anything involving infinity! Remember that it is only an idea; you can't expect it to behave like any ordinary number.
2007-03-28 11:47:59 · answer #4 · answered by mathsmanretired 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
because this oscilaltea between -1 and 1 this does not converge so value is not defined.
2007-03-28 11:48:19 · answer #5 · answered by Mein Hoon Na 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
it could be both..and yes it is indeterminate.
but i would rather choose -1..because infinity is just not a number..we can just ignore it..
2007-03-28 11:53:24 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋