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1=2
Can anyone prove this ???

2007-03-28 01:26:21 · 6 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

6 answers

I have found a simple explanation at this website:
http://mcraefamily.com/MathHelp/JokeProofFactoring.htm

Nice Brain Teaser!

2007-03-28 01:31:01 · answer #1 · answered by kunalseeni 2 · 0 0

1=2
1+1=1
1-1=1
you will find that 0=0
so you brain teaser is false or I am not thinking

2007-03-28 02:01:27 · answer #2 · answered by no one a 2 · 0 0

No. It is not and can not be proved so really. However, the error in the following proofs are difficult to detect.

(a^2-b^2) = (a+b) x (a-b)........1
if a = b then
a^2-b^2 = a^2-ab = a(a-b).........2

from 1 and 2 we have
a(a-b) = (a+b) x (a-b)
therefore a = a+b
that is a = 2a
therefore 1=2 !!!!!

Another,
10 cm = 1/10 m
squaring both sides,
100 cm = 1/100 m
but 100 cm = 1 m
therefore
1m = 1 cm
therefore,
100 cm = 1 cm
therefore, 1 = 100 !!!!!!!!

like wise there are many such so called "proofs" which are not correct mathematically.

2007-03-28 04:08:05 · answer #3 · answered by dipakrashmi 4 · 0 0

This cannot be proven in mathematics. That is the true beauty of math. Show me a proof, and I'll bust it.

You'll notice that any proof will involve the term 0/0.

The problem isn't dividing by zero. In calculus, dividing by zero is the same as approaching infinity. The problem is when you divide zero by zero, resulting in what is called an indeterminant.

Lets say we have constants a and b, and a DOES NOT EQUAL b.

0=0 (true)
a*0=b*0 (true.. 0=0)
a=b (0/0) <=> a=b (1) <=> a=b (FALSE!)

0/0 does not equal 1, it is an indeterminant

2007-03-28 01:32:20 · answer #4 · answered by Joatmon 2 · 0 0

x = y
x^2 = xy
x^2 - y^2 = xy - y^2
(x + y)(x - y) = y(x - y)
x + y = y

since x = y

2y = y

2 = 1

2007-03-28 01:34:46 · answer #5 · answered by John S 6 · 0 0

i can if you allow division by zero
:). . .(like john s just did)

2007-03-28 01:35:28 · answer #6 · answered by mikedotcom 5 · 0 0

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