1. No difference is distinguishable between nothingness and you if you are not as part.
2. No difference would be distinguishable between nothingness and you if you are not as part.
3. No difference could be distinguishable between nothingness and you if you are not as part.
4. No difference will be distinguishable between nothingness and you if you are not as part.
Which one is grammatically correct?
2007-03-27 21:04:08 · 9 answers · asked by The Knowledge Server 1 in Arts & Humanities ➔ Philosophy
None..i guess.
2007-03-27 21:06:39 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
3
2007-03-27 21:07:25 · answer #2 · answered by ilinasalleh 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If you are not a part of the solution, then there is no distinguishable difference between you and nothingness.
2007-03-27 21:13:00 · answer #3 · answered by my_alias_id 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
If you are truly ONLY concerned with grammar then all could potentially be, it would depend on what you intended the meaning of the sentence to be. However if you are asking which one makes sense, then I would say none since it would purely be a matter of opinion and interpretation.
2007-03-27 21:12:45 · answer #4 · answered by PeaceFrog 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Any of them would do as far as grammar is concerned... though the word 'distinguishable' could perhaps better be replaced by the word 'discernible'.. what do you say?
2007-03-27 21:18:14 · answer #5 · answered by small 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
1 and 4.
Lollita is wrong. If clause type one IS a combination of Simple Future and Simple Present.
2007-03-27 21:08:01 · answer #6 · answered by mrquestion 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
None
2007-03-27 21:09:18 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
I think it is not the grammar which is incorrect. The LOgic.
2007-03-27 21:09:31 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
no. 4....because grammaticlly its if clause type 1
2007-03-27 21:10:34 · answer #9 · answered by LOLITTA A 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋