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how it came from latin to the english form that we use of it today
PLEASE HELP!
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2007-03-27 19:00:50 · 5 answers · asked by Annie 1 in Education & Reference Words & Wordplay

sry origin

2007-03-27 19:35:30 · update #1

5 answers

According to the OED (Oxford English Dictionary) it came into English from the French word (spelled the same) sometime in the 16th to 17th centuries.

The first citation they list is for the literal meaning (painless, pain-relieving) from a 1663 work: "Curing of cancers...by the outward application of an indolent powder."

The first citation for the common, modern meaning (lazy, idle) is from 1710.

2007-03-27 19:39:45 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

One entry found for indolent.
Main Entry: in·do·lent
Pronunciation: -l&nt
Function: adjective
Etymology: Late Latin indolent-, indolens insensitive to pain, from Latin in- + dolent-, dolens, present participle of dolEre to feel pain
1 a : causing little or no pain b : slow to develop or heal
2 a : averse to activity, effort, or movement : habitually lazy b : conducive to or encouraging laziness c : exhibiting indolence
synonym see LAZY
- in·do·lent·ly adverb

2007-03-28 03:18:49 · answer #2 · answered by carly071 4 · 3 1

Enter the word here - http://www.thefreedictionary.com/, and you will find the origin is [Late Latin indolns, indolent-, painless : Latin in-, not; see in-1 + Latin dolns, present participle of dolre, to feel pain.]; http://dictionary.reference.com/ is great also. It says [Origin: 1655–65; < L indolent- (s. of indoléns), equiv. to in- in-3 + dolent- (s. of doléns) prp. of dolére to be pain-ful, be in pain; see dole2, -ent] and also [Late Latin indolēns, indolent-, painless : Latin in-, not; see in-1 + Latin dolēns, present participle of dolēre, to feel pain.]

2007-04-02 08:03:35 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 3 0

lazy

2007-04-04 06:26:24 · answer #4 · answered by ~*tigger*~ ** 7 · 0 0

uhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhh.......... ;-P

2007-04-04 13:28:56 · answer #5 · answered by tabproduction 2 · 0 2

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