if so, are there any flaws in his private language argument?
also, the reason for his argument is to prove that other minds exist in order for language to be possible, an other reason is to argue against solipsism.
but i have a question. is language still impossible if the solipsist imagines other minds and then communicates with other minds? or id language only possible if there are other minds that are not your own? PLEASE HELP!
2007-03-27
18:22:13
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4 answers
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asked by
Anonymous
in
Arts & Humanities
➔ Philosophy