2007-03-27 17:18:20 · 27 answers · asked by silvamex2001 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Cultures & Groups ➔ Lesbian, Gay, Bisexual, and Transgender
Hahahaha no that's not true sweetheart.
2007-03-27 17:21:01 · answer #1 · answered by Tania La Güera 5 · 2⤊ 1⤋
Everyone has some kind of sexual experimentation with somebody as a kid-it's part of figuring out you're world. The genitilia do not get excluded.
Not in the pedophile sense- I meant along the lines of comparing yourself to your friend to make sure you're normal.
2007-03-27 17:23:30 · answer #2 · answered by Amy 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
No not for most. If someone who is gay has had this kind of experience they need counseling for the abuse they suffered as a child. It does not mean they will be gay nor does it mean that those who are gay have been abused or experimented with a relative.
2007-03-27 20:18:23 · answer #3 · answered by teresacmt 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, maybe for some people......which that it gross because it would then be incest, but that is a whole other subject, but i don't think that any normal sexual experience should be with a member of your own family, it's not respectful or normal, i think with a friend from childhood growing up with you is more normal than a family member, but that is just my opinion, i won't judge based upon that, but either way its frowned upon weather you are gay or straight. hope this helps!!
2007-03-27 19:39:30 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
This is an easy answer NO! Some gay people don't have their first sexual experience until their late to post adolescence.
2007-03-27 17:28:48 · answer #5 · answered by Stringa B 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
That is About as rare as finding a ham sandwich at Islamic mosque :). Most studies have shown that gay people experiment first with people they want to have a relationship with.
2007-03-27 17:26:04 · answer #6 · answered by Philatellic I.Y.C. 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Could be true, in some way, I am not gay, but it happened to me. I like my same sex, but I do not consider myself gay.
2007-03-27 17:23:18 · answer #7 · answered by MARIA 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
To believe in something like that, one would have to look at the logic --
gay = had same sex with relative during childhood
therefor -
bi = had sex with relatives of both sexes during childhood
and
hetero = had sex with relative of opposite sex
and transgendered = had sex with relatives of opposite sex wearing the others clothing.
That is not to say that on the occasion it has happened, but the true logic in that falls short of being anything more viable than normal propaganda.
2007-03-27 17:23:18 · answer #8 · answered by nuk k 1 · 1⤊ 3⤋
I don;t know of anyone who had their first sexual experience with a family member where did you hear that from?
2007-03-28 00:24:41 · answer #9 · answered by Daniel L 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, for me it was but very innocent realy, cousin kissing & touching.
Later it was my best friend but that has grown into something not so innocent.
Davidxxx
2007-03-28 12:10:54 · answer #10 · answered by wowdavid 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
i don't think so. it can happen with same sex friends too! the key word here is "experiment" we all do this as children. some like it and carry on and others don't and don't!
2007-03-27 17:54:36 · answer #11 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋