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if so, are there any flaws in his private language argument?

also, the reason for his argument is to prove that other minds exist in order for language to be possible, an other reason is to argue against solipsism.

but i have a question. is language still impossible if the solipsist imagines other minds and then communicates with other minds? or id language only possible if there are other minds that are not your own? PLEASE HELP!

2007-03-27 12:46:41 · 2 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities Philosophy

2 answers

This must be a college assignment, this question has been asked for the past week or so.

There is some info in wikipedia on private language

2007-03-27 13:07:15 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Well.... minds minds minds.... You don't actually need a language to understand what you want... each person is just a single individual.... You might think you have your concious and your sub-concious "speaking to you".. but those voices are just YOU thinking... you are just one indicidual... you do not need a special language to communicate with yourself... because there is nothing to explain to yourself... unless you have multiple personalities... and that's not normal...
I don't really know how to explain it...
A child without a language should know how to answer a question like this... only he knows he can still think without knowing any language....

We need two minds with different ideas and apart from each other so that communication is needed.... if communication is needed... then a language common to both parties is needed...

Hope that makes any sense at all..

CHRIS

2007-03-27 13:04:08 · answer #2 · answered by CRA 3 · 0 0

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