According to epistemology...no.
2007-03-27 10:56:40
·
answer #1
·
answered by Anonymous
·
1⤊
1⤋
An argument for (<3)plsd...
If you are at all familiar with Descartes, your assumption that sensory input qualifies as proof of existence would be incorrect. Descartes, inevitably reaching his famous "I think, therefore I am" quotation, did an experiment with wax to exemplify the idea that our senses do not indicate existence. Take a ball of hardened wax, see it taste it look at it etc... Now if you were to leave the room and someone were to heat the wax and change it, you would return to find it in a different state. So by sensory information only, this new object could not be identified as wax. The only connection that can be made is through the processing of said information. Thought is not a sense...though perhaps it should be...
So with this theory, "thinking" that you are an entity and that other entities exist may just make it so. I don't know that I believe this, but it's worth considering.
2007-03-27 11:24:07
·
answer #2
·
answered by M 1
·
0⤊
0⤋
All objective individuals have subjective perceptions
But the objectivity must sustain or reality may begin to fade.
Proof is in an objective analysis.
2007-03-27 13:31:46
·
answer #3
·
answered by Billy Butthead 7
·
0⤊
0⤋
Maria G is right. Rene Descartes saying" I think therefore I am" exemplifies philosophy and those that believe it.
This was proven when he went to a saloon in Paris and ordered a beer. When the bartender asked him if he wanted another one, Descartes answered " I think not" and he suddenly disappeared.
2007-03-27 14:48:43
·
answer #4
·
answered by patrick m 2
·
0⤊
0⤋
if you are reading this, then i have proven to YOU that there are other entities with [their] own subjective perceptions outside of ME ;) assuming that you believe that your sensory input qualifies as proof of your existence, and that you don't consider me a part of yourself.
hooray subjective solipsism! hooray semantics!
added in reply to maria:
i was playing with the way the question was phrased: to whom am i proving the existence of others?
the obvious answer to the original query doesn't provide for any meaningful conversation ("according to epistemology, no") so i decided to draw attention to some assumptions that people don't generally even realize they are making; in no way did i imply that i personally believe sensory input qualifies as proof of existence.
(in present times, however, hedonism prevails: people DO assume that sensory input qualifies as proof of existence)
btw, how can socrates prove that he thinks in the first place? (if not using sensory perceptions) or that he exists to do the thinking? the entire "cogita ergo sum" appears to be flawed from the outset according to the fallacy of circular reasoning: using his existence to prove his existence.
2007-03-27 11:10:53
·
answer #5
·
answered by (<3)pIsdn 1
·
0⤊
1⤋
Skepticism can't be refuted, but it also can't be consistently maintained or asserted. It's useless, except as a reminder that knowledge may be provisional.
2007-03-27 11:28:53
·
answer #6
·
answered by mcd 4
·
0⤊
0⤋
No.
Nor can free will be proven since we all do what we do regardless of whether we believe we have a choice.
2007-03-31 00:46:13
·
answer #7
·
answered by Anonymous
·
0⤊
0⤋