Since there are more than 2 poor white people for every poor black person, why do many people think that black people are the only poor people in the U.S.?
Why can't people understand relative poverty and how that increases the number of poor white people while decreasing the number of poor black people, yet poor whites are still largely overlooked when it comes to poverty?
If the majority of something determines it's definition and the majority of poor people in the U.S. are white, why do most people relate violence and crime to poverty when poor whites are not overrun by violence or crime?
I'm just curious to know how such a large group of american citizens have been overlooked.
Is it because they have no voice in America so no one notices that they exist?
Is it because the media hasn't jumped on the poor white man train for fear of being labled as racists?
Poverty is bad for all involved regardless of race or geographic location.
I'd just like to know what ya'll think.
2007-03-27
07:41:20
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6 answers
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asked by
Jim B
4
in
Society & Culture
➔ Cultures & Groups
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