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If an object is going backwards in time, would it be perceivable to those going forward in time?

2007-03-27 04:22:38 · 7 answers · asked by Luis 6 in Science & Mathematics Physics

7 answers

If one were able to move information or matter from one point to another faster than light, then according to special relativity, there would be some inertial frame of reference in which the signal or object was moving BACKWARDS IN TIME.

This is a consequence of the relativity of simultaneity in special relativity, which says that in some cases different reference frames will disagree on whether two events at different locations happened "at the same time" or not, and they can also disagree on the order of the two events

(technically, these disagreements occur when spacetime interval between the events is 'space-like', meaning that neither event lies in the future light cone of the other).[7] If one of the two events represents the sending of a signal from one location and the second event represents the reception of the same signal at another location, then as long as the signal is moving at the speed of light or slower, the mathematics of simultaneity ensures that all reference frames agree that the transmission-event happened before the reception-event.[7] However, in the case of a hypothetical signal moving faster than light, there would always be some frames in which the signal was received before it was sent, so that the signal could be said to have moved backwards in time. And since one of the two fundamental postulates of special relativity says that the laws of physics should work the same way in every inertial frame, then if it is possible for signals to move backwards in time in any one frame, it must be possible in all frames. This means that if observer A sends a signal to observer B which moves FTL (faster than light) in A's frame but backwards in time in B's frame, and then B sends a reply which moves FTL in B's frame but backwards in time in A's frame, it could work out that A receives the reply before sending the original signal, a clear violation of causality in every frame. An illustration of such a scenario using spacetime diagrams can be found here.

2007-03-27 04:31:19 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

Well, logically, a person going backwards in time would look to you like an ordinary person doing everything backwards- vomiting up food, getting younger with time, etc. This isn't allowed thermodynamically of course. The only way around that would be to find some way to avoid travelling through the time dimension directly- going round it, distorting it or something. In that case, you would not expect to perceive them.

2007-03-27 11:30:13 · answer #2 · answered by Ian I 4 · 1 0

Assuming that it was travelling backwards in time at the same rate that you were travelling forwards, I would think that it would be perceivable to those going forward.

The only difference would be that it's apparent entropy would decrease rather than increase.

2007-03-27 11:31:39 · answer #3 · answered by Jeremy 2 · 0 0

Huh I don't Doubt It I was Wondering Something Like That Last Night. Keep On Asking But Man That Is A Tough One
Time Travel Is Possible With A Very Complex Version Of Quantum Pyshischs That I am Using Now In My Lab

2007-03-27 11:27:46 · answer #4 · answered by nukecatred 1 · 0 2

Antimatter is frequently regarded as matter going backwards in time. It works out that way mathematically, in quantum field theory. Not all physicists like to look at it that way, however.

2007-03-27 11:28:28 · answer #5 · answered by Scythian1950 7 · 0 0

Time travel in general is not possible

2007-03-27 11:26:26 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 2

put on some clothes

2007-03-27 11:27:11 · answer #7 · answered by Wizard of Ahhs 3 · 0 2

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