Lets say the first day of my period is March 31st, and my insurance kicks in April 1st. If I ended up getting pregnant in April, would the insurance cover the pregnancy even though the first day of my period was March 31st?
Thanks...
2007-03-27 01:52:43 · 6 answers · asked by sundragonjess 5 in Pregnancy & Parenting ➔ Pregnancy
Just to be on the safe side, I'd fib and just say my period started on the 1st. I've heard of insurance companies going by the dr.'s due date, and refusing the pay for obstetrical care based on the fact that conception occured before their insurance kicked in. Rare I'm sure but I'd rather be safe than sorry.
I think you should be fine, good luck.
2007-03-27 02:00:21 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
If your period starts March 31, presumably you aren't pregnant then or for the next few days, which would take you into April. The problem with insurance companies is that they have more money and lawyers than you. Wait until May to get pregnant, although I would assume any conception in April would be covered.
2007-03-27 01:58:23 · answer #2 · answered by suzykew70 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I don't see why your period would have any determination on your insurance coverage. After all, you don't get pregnant by having your period-you get pregnant after ovulating. You would need to look it up in your plan to find out if pregnancy would be covered or deemed a preexisting condition.
2007-03-27 01:57:21 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Check your policy... lots of insurance carriers don't consider pregnancy a pre existing condition.
2007-03-27 01:59:12 · answer #4 · answered by Legs 4 · 1⤊ 1⤋
yes, it should, because it was not a pre existing condition. You probably would not be diagnosed pregnant until May
2007-03-27 01:57:10 · answer #5 · answered by Renee B 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Yes it would
2007-03-27 02:04:31 · answer #6 · answered by Katie S 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋