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Please write as many tricks as you know.

2007-03-27 01:26:55 · 6 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

6 answers

the following is a "proof" that 2 = 1:

Let A = B. Then A^2 = AB.
A^2 - B^2 = AB - B^2
(A + B)(A - B) = B(A - B)
A + B = B
B + B = B
2B = B
2 = 1

or in other words, "1 = 2".

adding 1 to both sides, you get: "2 = 3".

can you find the flaw in the logic of the "proof"?

2007-03-27 01:33:28 · answer #1 · answered by JoseABDris 2 · 2 1

No 2 can't equal 3 unless you define them in different terms
You could say that 2 in a binary number system is equal to 3 in a trinary number system
and that the both represent 100

The example above where 2 =1 has an error in line 3

2007-03-27 08:41:16 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

I can prove that 2=4

Let's find x,y such that

1) x^x^x^x^x^.... = 2

2) y^y^y^y^y^.... = 4

Remember a^b^c = a^(b^c)

From 1 ===>
x^2 = 2 implies that x=sqrt(2)

From 2 ===>
y^4 = 4 implies that y=4^(1/4) = sqrt(2) = x

Hence

2=x^x^x^x^... = y^y^y^y^....=4

QED

2007-03-27 08:38:58 · answer #3 · answered by Amit Y 5 · 0 0

There is a lot of mythology surrounding a famous old mathematician named Pythagoras and him and his cult supposedly possessing a proof for the equation 2+2=5. Its an interesting story. I suggest doing a google search for Pythagoras and reading about him.

2007-03-27 08:36:14 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Here's another proof. Let x = 0.999...(9's carry on infinitely)

x = 0.999...
10x = 9.999...
10x - x = 9.999... - x
9x = 9.999... - 0.999...
9x = 9
x = 1
0.999... = 1

Its actually based off of the fact that 1/3 = 0.333..., but 3 * 1/3 = 1 and not 0.999... (or technically they equal both?)

Let x = 1/3 = 0.333...

x = 0.333...
10x = 3.333...
10x - x = 3.333... - x
9x = 3.333... - 0.333...
9x = 3
x = 1/3

2007-03-27 09:02:35 · answer #5 · answered by Bhajun Singh 4 · 0 0

yes, i can prove it

x=x
therefore, x²=x² (squaring both sides)
therefore,x²-x²=x²-x² (subtracting x from both sides)
therefore,x(x-x)=(x-x)(x+x) (taking x common from
first side and apllying
a²-b²=(a-b)(a+b) in
second side)
therefore, x=x+x
therefore x=2x
therefore, 1=2

2007-03-27 08:38:58 · answer #6 · answered by Daredevil 2 · 0 0

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