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Is it possible for a hermaphrodite (someone with both a penis and vagina; a person of both sex) to get themselves pregnant? can it be done? is it possible?
twins, fraternal twins, semi-identical twins, hermaphrodites...i don't know what kind of other details to include. its a simple question, the tricky part is, IS there someone out there reading this question with enough brain power to answer this question properly?? I want educated results!

2007-03-26 17:51:57 · 3 answers · asked by NONAME 1 in Science & Mathematics Biology

Keep in mind Sid, that i have found a specific case which prompted my question, thats why i was asking. The article had said that the child was born with fully developed genetalia of both sexes. So that got me wondering. I was thinking from a more scientific point of view and wondering, if sperm was taken from that person, and then artificially insemenated inside of the vagina, what in science/normal human biology would suggest that, that sperm would NOT seek out the egg as normal, and inseminate it?? I don't see why it would not, with two sets of fully functioning genitalia..

2007-03-28 07:33:19 · update #1

This is a fact, it was in an article i read, i will try to find the link, BOTH sets of genitals were fully formed!!

2007-03-29 07:57:50 · update #2

Here's a link to one of the articles about this case specifically that i'm citing http://www.azcentral.com/news/articles/0328semi-identical.html I dont know if it will hyperlink, so you may have you copy and paste but its worth the read, then tell me what you think guys/girls, please!

2007-03-29 08:06:34 · update #3

3 answers

I did read the article. Thanks for the link Audio. The article states that the hermaphrodite twin has both testicular and ovarian tissue. Merely possessing repreductive tissues does not mean fully formed genitalia are present. Or, for instance, if a woman has a fully functional vagina, but her ovaries do not function, then she will not become pregnant. I don't know if sperm taken from the hermaphrodite and injected into his body would lead to fertilization. This is not a normal procedure (ie intercourse), therefore fertilization has to be assisted (ie, in-vitro). Its beyond me to speculate whether this invitro method would lead to pregnancy. Even if the fertilized egg is placed into the uterus of the adult hermaphrodite, it has to be seen whether the adult hermaphrodite has a fully developed uterus to carry the baby. The inner organs MUST be fully functional in order to carry out a pregnancy to its term or otherwise. So you asked about self-fertilization: - I personally don't think its possible. Two fully formed tissues (ovarian and testicular) don't usually exist in a human hermaphrodite. We'll have to wait until the boy (or girl ) grows up. And it depends on the sex he chooses. If the twin chooses to be a girl, then we'll see. And if he chooses to be a boy, we'll have to see that too. Eitherway, no human would if given the option, choose to possess organs and tissues of both sexes as an adult.

My previous answer:I don't think hermaphroditism in human beings (which is really really rare) can lead to self-fertilization. This phenomenon is restricted to lower forms in the animal kingdom (like worms) and of course to plants (bisexual plants, etc). No human hermaphrodite will possess both male and female genitalia, at least not in the fully developed form. Unlike lower phyla, humans require physical interaction for cellular interaction (ie, interaction of ova and sperm). So its impossible that such a person can impregnate themselves. Because human hs have no mechanism to direct their cells to fusion.
And you also have to realize that we are thinking beings, and are not governed by a specific mating period.

2007-03-26 22:12:29 · answer #1 · answered by Jinky 3 · 0 0

The answer before me is right. Only living creatures below us is capable of doing this. Also... it is a scientific fact that even though a person may have both sexes, one or the other genital is NOT functional. You can get an erection, but can't ejaculate or the uterus isn't capable of impregnation. It can't be both functional.

2007-03-29 02:54:09 · answer #2 · answered by caramelswoman 2 · 0 0

no not possible

2007-03-27 07:27:14 · answer #3 · answered by gayatri r 3 · 0 0

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