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I've been thinking is there a relationship between a mother killing her child and the mother being poor? is there a correlation between sub-standard(i.e- adequate safe shelter, food, health insurance and a job that provides a LIVING wage) living and a mother killing her child?

2007-03-26 16:41:43 · 4 answers · asked by BugHugz 2 in Social Science Economics

4 answers

I do know for certain that there is a correlation between poverty and violent crime in general. I have not seen any studies working on the particular aspect you are referring to though. If you find it, please post it. I am curious to know.

Just a note on the above answer: Correlation does NOT mean causation. Correlation just means that when one happens, the other is more likely to happen. Incidentally, there is a correlation between poverty and mental illness. It could be that poverty causes mental illness, that mental illness causes poverty, that there is a third factor that we don't know about, or it could just be a coincidence.

2007-03-27 00:15:06 · answer #1 · answered by Yo, Teach! 4 · 0 0

Mothers killing children is rare and almost by definition a product of mental illness, or post birth depression, which should not have a strong correlation with income. Most child homicide is by third parties living in the household or taking care of children. Since the less money you have the fewer choices you have about child care, I would think it would correlate with poverty.

2007-03-27 12:27:53 · answer #2 · answered by meg 7 · 0 0

It is mental illness.
Mental illness is related to poverty because the mentally ill become downwardly mobile, that is, they have trouble maintaining normal life activities and their finances tank. Many also self-medicate with drugs.
But basically, almost all child homicide crimes are due to untreated or even unrecognized mental illness.
Poverty isn't the root cause at all.

2007-03-26 23:51:32 · answer #3 · answered by greengo 7 · 0 0

yes!

2007-03-26 23:46:33 · answer #4 · answered by 0330em@jd 4 · 0 0

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