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If a transistor is basically two diodes and there is a voltage drop Vbe of ca. 0.7V across the base-emitter junction for a fully saturated transistor, then why is there no voltage drop of >= 0.7V across collector-emitter ? Doesn't the collector current have to go across the same base-emitter junction as well ?

2007-03-26 14:04:58 · 4 answers · asked by xfire_2 4 in Science & Mathematics Physics

4 answers

In saturation, both base to emitter and base to collector junctions are forward biased. This means there will be a 0.7 v drop from base to emitter AND 0.7v drop from base to collector. Since the base-to-emitter and base-to-collector voltages are almost the same, the collector to emitter voltage is almost zero (if the junctions were physically matched, the saturation voltage would in theory be zero.)

2007-03-26 14:23:26 · answer #1 · answered by gp4rts 7 · 8 1

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In the fully ON state the voltage VCE across the transistor is almost zero and the transistor is said to be saturated because it cannot pass any more collector current Ic A cut off transistor has no base current, thus between emitter and collector it is open. if the Emitter is connected to ground and the Collector to Vcc (simple circuit) then you will have the full voltage there and zero current flow

2016-04-05 05:10:18 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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RE:
Why no voltage drop Vce across transistor ?
If a transistor is basically two diodes and there is a voltage drop Vbe of ca. 0.7V across the base-emitter junction for a fully saturated transistor, then why is there no voltage drop of >= 0.7V across collector-emitter ? Doesn't the collector current have to go across the same base-emitter...

2015-08-06 19:48:01 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

There must be somehing connected to the base in addition to the 220k ohm resistor, because if that's all there is the transistor currents will all be zero.

2016-03-18 03:32:15 · answer #4 · answered by Sharon 4 · 0 0

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