2007-03-26 13:33:32 · 12 answers · asked by it hurts 1 in Family & Relationships ➔ Marriage & Divorce
I just went through this 6 months ago with my ex-wife.................and the answer is .......................YES! SORRY
2007-03-26 14:05:15 · answer #1 · answered by Dwayne H 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Seperated does not equal divorced. If you purchased the house under you name prior to getting married and do not live in a community property state then the house can be claimed as yours once the divorse is final. just seperated though and you are still responsible for her welfare. If you are in a community property state then even though you may n\have owned the house prior to the wedding it is still considered half hers.
talk to a lawyer if you are serious sbout going through with a divorce.
2007-03-26 13:40:17 · answer #2 · answered by D mon 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes she does, until it is all drawn out on paper that you solely own it. That is normally done through an attorney and most likely court.
2007-03-26 13:39:25 · answer #3 · answered by dakota_gal_1968 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Has either of you started a divorce? Can you prove infidelity? If you can prove she has been with another man you can get the house and make her pay alimony!
2007-03-26 14:20:34 · answer #4 · answered by Alone again 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes she does get a seperation agreement drawn up and get it over with already
2007-03-26 13:37:55 · answer #5 · answered by fortyninertu 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, until you get a judge's ruling stating otherwise.
2007-03-26 13:37:09 · answer #6 · answered by ScarlettBegonias 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
ofcourse she does. she owns half until you sell it thats why you said"I am still livivg in our house". You answered your own question.
2007-03-26 13:50:21 · answer #7 · answered by muffinman 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
As far as i know the answer would be yes.
2007-03-26 13:37:37 · answer #8 · answered by smileyone 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes...
you are not separated if you two live in the same house........."But, oh Judge but we don't sleep together."
(slap) you shouldn't lie son......Judges don't like the intelligence insulted
2007-03-26 13:47:29 · answer #9 · answered by suporzero 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
All depends on whose name the deed is in.
2007-03-26 15:38:16 · answer #10 · answered by Leather and Lace 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋