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The Arabs attacked Israel in 1967, but somehow expected Israel to return all it's land as if nothing had happened. It just seems to me that if you're the agressor, you can't expect the complete return after your defeat. What is the Arab answer for this expectation?

2007-03-26 07:22:06 · 13 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government Other - Politics & Government

13 answers

There was never a border. It was actually a ceasefire line (which never prevented Arabs from firing anyway).

2007-03-26 14:26:42 · answer #1 · answered by mo mosh 6 · 2 1

They have been used a well financed and organized anti-Zionist anti-Israel campaign for some time which seems to be working. Very few people that I know remember the sneak attack of the Yom Kippur War or the 67 war nor do they really know the true history about the partition of Palestine in 1948.

For instance hardly anyone knows that there was an Arab state and a Jewish state and that Jordan and Syria stole the Arab state and kicked the Palestinians out . Now those refugees from the Arab state want the jewish state. And no one ever assailed the Arabs for not caring for their own people. So of course they want the captured territoriy from the 1967 war. Which isn't theirs. But the Sinai has been ceded to them and the West Bank as well.

2007-03-26 07:39:41 · answer #2 · answered by Max 2 · 2 1

I have never understood this. Israel is attacked by the Arabs and takes land from Jordan and Egypt. Now, there are 'Palestinians' where Jordanians and Egyptians once were.

I worked with a guy for two years. When I first met him, he said he was from Jordan. Later, he said 'Palestine'. So, this must be a phenomena that happens to then in their early 20's. Go to bed an Egyptian (like Arafat) wake up a 'Palestinian'.

2007-03-26 07:28:29 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 4 1

The Arab expectation is Israel to be gone.
Everytime Israel gives up land the terrorist attacks keep getting worse so where is their reward for land for peace deals.

2007-03-26 11:16:09 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 3 1

besides to the different posters: The previous testomony, The Septuagint [translated from Hebrew to Greek someplace 250 BC] became in placed at that factor, used even before Jesus' time. the hot testomony became written 35-one hundred advert and translated to latin by utilising St Jerome, each so often 4 hundred advert. it remains on parchments and examine contained in the church, or preached orally. So, there's no NEW TESTAMENTS IN A e book/BIBLE type at that factor compiled with Septuagint.' Bible on my own' concept isn't in existence at that factor as there's no e book to call bible. It became using Oral custom up till 1400 while the 'compiled e book type bible' ultimately hit the printing press. In different words, it took the Catholic Church approximately 4 hundred years of collecting, enhancing, and sorting the classic manuscripts and have been given revealed in 1400. there have been additionally multiple uninspired writings [apocryphal books] that have been floating around that weren't cannonized.

2016-10-01 12:41:44 · answer #5 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

They may well be a just case for a Palestinian state, however I can not see why all the territory should be vacated by Israel, For instance why should not Jordan contribute land also, being situated in a large area of historic Palestine.

2007-03-26 07:52:34 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 3 1

The "Palestinians" want a Judenrein state in the West Bank and Gaza, AND they want the right to return to Israel. Who practices apartheid?

How can Israel give land BACK to a group of people who never had it in the first place?

2007-03-26 08:25:43 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 2 2

israel has been recognized as the aggressor in 1967, otherwise it would have annexed the land as it did for the previous wars. but the UN explicitly stated that the land couldn't belong to israel. territorial expansion through war and aggression is no longer tolerated by civilized countries.

2007-03-27 05:12:19 · answer #8 · answered by maroc 7 · 1 2

Once any Islamic has person has set foot on any soil on Earth then that ground is claimed as Islamic territory forever. Can't you understand the wisdom of this? LMAO

2007-03-26 07:27:58 · answer #9 · answered by Nightstalker1967 4 · 3 1

You just use a term that is not in the Arab vocabulary (Logic)

2007-03-26 07:51:00 · answer #10 · answered by Ynot! 6 · 1 1

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