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You have an 8, 5 and 3 pint containers. the 8 pint is full of water. Using just these containers, and not throwing any water away, how could you measure exactley 4 pints?

2007-03-26 06:29:20 · 14 answers · asked by lilac 2 in Games & Recreation Other - Games & Recreation

14 answers

Fill the 3 pint container and pour it into the 5 pint. Fill up the 3 pint again and pour into the 5 pint until the 5 pint is full. That will leave you with 1 pint. Pour that 1 pint into the 8 pint container, fill the 3 again and pour it into the 8 pint also.

2007-03-26 06:39:26 · answer #1 · answered by ajveach4 1 · 1 1

To simplify my answer I will use an over/under stile.

so we start with:
8/8 0/5 0/3
(8 pints in the 8 pint container, 0 in th 5 pint and 0 in the 3 pint)
Follow the progressions:
3/8 5/5 0/3
3/8 2/5 3/3
6/8 2/5 0/3
6/8 0/5 2/3
1/8 5/5 2/3
1/8 4/5 3/3
the 5 pint container has 4 pints in it

2007-03-26 13:44:59 · answer #2 · answered by derelictdream 2 · 0 0

k, took a little working out but.

fill the 5 pint jug from the 8 pint one

now from th 5 pint fill the 3 pint. this leaves 2 pints in the 5

pour all 3 pints back into the 8 pint jug giving 6 pints in the 8 and 2 in the 5

pour the 2 pints from the 5 into the 3 pint jug

re-fill the 5 pint jug from the 6 pints in the 8 pint jug

now top-up the 3 pint jug from the 5 pint jug leaving 4 pints of water in the 5 pint jug

btw - watch the film again - bruce willis got it wrong

2007-03-26 13:43:46 · answer #3 · answered by Colin Willson 3 · 1 0

Fill up the 3 pint container and fill up the 5 pint container to only 1 pint and that should leave 4 pints of water in the 8 pint container.

2007-03-26 13:32:57 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 2

You can pour from the eight pint into the five pint tip away excess water. Pour from five pint into three pint it leaves two pints pour this into eight pint container, fill up five pints then pour into three pints this leaves another two pints, pour the excess from five into eight thus four pints in eight pint container.

2007-03-26 14:00:46 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Pour 5 pints into the five pint jug.
Then kidnap that horrid little pint sized Korean dictator Kim Jong something or other and drown him in it.
His body will displace precisely one pint leaving four in the jug.
Pull out his body and hey presto, problem solved without the three pint.

2007-03-26 13:57:59 · answer #6 · answered by Dazzit 3 · 0 2

OH NO MATHS....the worst lesson ever.
I dont understand why people dont just use a caluclator and why the hell do you care to calculate the other side of a traingle using tan...just stop being lazy and get a ruler.

Answer to your question.
Im still puzzling :S

2007-03-26 13:37:31 · answer #7 · answered by Vixz06 4 · 0 1

drink the lot, then pee out 4 pints

2007-03-26 13:34:42 · answer #8 · answered by Notre1Dame 2 · 0 2

Get a 4 pint bottle, I dunno!! Dang it! Now I'm determined to solve this!
....after reading the other people's, ajveach4 has the right answer. That's how you solve! Way to go ajveach4!! YAHOO!!

2007-03-26 13:40:10 · answer #9 · answered by Film_babe2000 3 · 0 1

pour out half of the 8pt into the 5 and 3.

2007-03-26 13:34:15 · answer #10 · answered by Gillespie's Helo Girl 2 · 0 2

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