I = (1-sinx) / cosx
(1-sin x) cos x / cos^2 x
(1-sin x) cos x / 1 - sin^2 x
(1-sin x) cos x / (1 - sin x) (1+sin x)
I = cos x / (1+sin x)
multiply
I^2 = (1-sin x) / (1+sin x)
use 1 = sin^2 x/2+cos^2 x/2 and sin x = 2 sin x/2 cos x/2
I^2 = (sin x/2 - cos x/2)^2 / (sin x/2 + cos x/2)^2
I = (sin x/2 - cos x/2) / (sin x/2 + cos x/2)
2007-03-26 01:59:25
·
answer #1
·
answered by anil bakshi 7
·
2⤊
0⤋
Asking for a solution implies an equation, but you have only given us a solution. Did you mean
(1 - sin x)/cos x = 0
If this is the problem, try multiplying both sides by cos x. This starts the following chain of reasoning:
(1 - sin x) = 0
sin x = 1
x = arcsin 1
x = Ï/2 (and 5Ï/2, 9Ï/2, etc. But let's not worry about them.)
However, this solution in not valid, because when we substitute it back into the original equation, we get an indeterminate form:
(1 - sin Ï/2)/cos Ï/2 = (1 - 1)/0 = 0/0 ???
If, on the other hand, you wish to just simplify the expression, take the following tack:
(1 - sin x)/cos x = (1/cos x) - (sin x/cos x) = sec x - tan x
2007-03-26 09:12:01
·
answer #2
·
answered by Old Geezer 1
·
0⤊
1⤋
A solution would require there was en equal sign somewhere; theres not.
Steve
2007-03-26 08:58:01
·
answer #3
·
answered by Anonymous
·
0⤊
0⤋
You should have an equationthen solve it, your statement is not an equation.
2007-03-26 09:10:27
·
answer #4
·
answered by raheleh 2
·
0⤊
0⤋