no.
2007-03-26 01:48:40
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answer #1
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answered by i ♥þîÑk☆ 5
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No. A copyright is a "work of authorship fixed in any tangible medium of expression." (17 USC 102(a)). That section goes on to list 8 categories of works that are excluded. The items excluded from copyright are listed in part (b) of the section.
A fragrance can potentially be trademarked in the US under the Lanham Act. E.g., there was a thread that was sold that had a floral scent. The scent had no utility other than to identify the brand of thread, and was granted a trademark.
This trademark protection is probably possible to extend to just a fragrance used as a perfume, but it would probably need to be a fragrance that was discernable to identify its source to most people, not just those who were fans of that fragrance. What would be more likely is that a trademark would apply to the name of a fragrance, and not the actual fragrance itself.
Other people have noted patent. Patent would be tough due to the novelty requirements. A patent would also mean disclosing the list of ingredients, which I think would be problematic for some fragrance creators.
2007-03-28 03:37:09
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answer #2
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answered by question_ahoy 5
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Assuming that the same fragrance could be created from more than one formulation, it would be difficult to prove copyright.
2007-03-26 08:54:48
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answer #3
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answered by Ranjeeh D 5
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It is possible to patent the formula, but rarely done, as so many fragrances resemble natural aromas. http://www.cosmeticsdesign-europe.com/news-by-product/news.asp?id=63614&idCat=134&k=courts-refuse-trademark
However, it is possible to patent the name of a fragrance. http://www.cosmeticsdesign.com/news/ng.asp?id=68648-the-stephan-company-elizabeth-arden-trade-mark-fragrance
2007-03-26 09:19:02
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answer #4
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answered by Doethineb 7
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No but you can patent the formula for one.
2007-03-26 08:49:08
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answer #5
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answered by wizjp 7
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I don't think so.
2007-03-26 08:49:17
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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