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the limits are 0 to 2 pi/q . the answer that comes out should be...

vm[(q/2*pi){(pi/q)+(1/2) sin(2*pi/q)}]^1/2

thnx in advance.

2007-03-24 21:49:56 · 1 answers · asked by devilishly_snappish 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

1 answers

You haven't stated the question properly -- there's a mistake somewhere if you want that answer to come out. However, I can give you the essential trick you need to solve this. The integral you wish to evaluate is of the form

∫ cos² t dt

over the interval from 0 to 2π/q. First observe that

2 cos² t = 1 + cos 2t

(you should have seen this trig indentity at some point). So we can rewrite the integral as

∫ cos² t dt = ½ ∫ (1 + cos 2t)dt

= ½ [1 + ½ sin 2t ] (evaluated between said limits),

= ½ [1 + ½ sin (4π/q) - 0 - 0]

= ½ + ¼ sin (4π/q).

Now, if you put in the corrections you need to make to your question, I might be willing to go through more of the calculation. But that depends on you.

2007-03-25 00:03:07 · answer #1 · answered by MHW 5 · 0 0

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