why did WWII begin only 20yrs after the 1st?

Question

i need 4 more reasons why in bullet point form pls thankyou very much

Answer 1

Because Hitler saw the terms of the Treaty of Versailles, which ended WW1, as deeply humiliating and unjust to the German people.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Treaty_of_Versailles

In response, he orchestrated a massive military re-armament throughout the 1930s to restore German pride, in contravention of various terms laid out in the treaty.

He also felt that Germany needed more space if it was to grow and industrialize according to his ambitions, whilst still according Germans their own recreational space.

It was Germany's invasion of Poland which actually triggered the declaration of war, on top of the annexation of the Sudetenland, Belgium, Holland, Austria and France.

He didn't actually want a war with Britain and tried to appease then British PM Neville Chamberlain, even offering to divide up occupied Europe and share it. The British rejected the offer and war after that was inevitable.

Answer 2

Well you can start by telling your 'teacher' that the origins of World War I and World War II have absolutely nothing to do with each other!

Just for 'launch-pad's' info - Great Britain & France declared war ON Germany after the Germans invaded Poland.

Don't you people learn anything about world history?

Clearly not from our 'history major's' response! The invasion of Poland (FYI first use of German Blitzkreig tactics) happened first, not 'on top of annexations or invasions of other european countries'.

As for offering to 'share' Europe - Chamberlain was offered 'peace in our time' claiming that Germany had stated that it was not planning to attack anybody. However, the invasion of Poland kindof made a mockery of that and as the UK had signed a protection pact with the Poles then the gig was very clearly up.

The French actually declared war a few hours later.

Answer 3

* Economic conditions in Germany - there was a economic depression not only in the US at the time, but also in Europe, which gave rise to the power of the NAZI party.
* The Treaty of Versaice set up punative terms for the losers of WWI. The terms which Germany had to live under provided an environment where a nationalistic movement was possible (i.e. the NAZI's).
* The breakup of Austia-Hungary into multiple, smaller countries at the end of WWI. Many of these countries had Germanic roots which Hitler used as justification for annexation and/or occupation.
* The fact that Russia became a communist dictatorship near the end of WWI. The Catholic church supported or at least ignored the agressiveness of Germany and Italy due to fear that communism would spread over all of Europe. The pope even blessed the Italian troops who invaded Ethiopia prior to WWII...

Answer 4

The immediate causes of World War II are generally held to be the German invasion of Poland, as well as the Japanese attacks on China, the United States, and the British and Dutch colonies. All of the attacks resulted from the leadership of authoritarian ruling elites in Germany and Japan. World War II began after these acts of aggression were met with an official declaration of war or armed resistance.


hope this will help.

Answer 5

You might want to include the famous quotation from Lloyd George after the peace treaty was signed at the end of WW1: We shall have to fight another war again in 25 years time but at twice the cost.

Answer 6

Because 'The war to end all wars' didnt! They were unconnected. There is no reason why they shoulnt have happened so close together.

Answer 7

because they were delayed by the other wars that were going in the world that time

Answer 8

well actually d world war might hav never taken place if germany had not attacked on france or britain......since germany had pumped all its money in militarization n rapid industalization it was unavoidable........search in wikipedia it will hav a lot more reasons............