2007-03-24 20:03:26 · 20 answers · asked by martin 1 in Arts & Humanities ➔ Philosophy
Oh that's easy,,, It's a fourth of infinity
2007-03-24 20:12:10 · answer #1 · answered by She Said 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Forever, since 1/2 of infinity is also considered to be infinity..
2007-03-24 22:27:19 · answer #2 · answered by shadi a 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Forever does not have a distance or span or cycle, there is no 1/2 of it.
2007-03-24 20:09:17 · answer #3 · answered by Izen G 5 · 2⤊ 0⤋
twoever, seriously its an idea, depending on how you percieve it its moment could be now, if you pick a number there are an infinite numbers before and after it, so then half of forever would still be forever, or maybe it is nothing more than as long as we are capable of being aware of it. Just an idea, nothing more.
2007-03-24 21:34:56 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Today. Without going into the math def. of infinity. Forty years down the line the same person says infinity ended a couple of years ago! ;)
2007-03-24 23:49:10 · answer #5 · answered by No Saint 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Exactly the same as forever.
2007-03-24 20:07:05 · answer #6 · answered by Freddy F 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
You can't halve infinity. If there is no end, there is no middle. No number would be high enough to equal half of forever.
2007-03-24 20:07:31 · answer #7 · answered by amp 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
about 3/4 of eternity
2007-03-25 06:56:10 · answer #8 · answered by Roxy 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
There is no such thing because forever is everlasting and there is no measure of time in forever.
2007-03-24 20:16:29 · answer #9 · answered by clcalifornia 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Something not worth thinking about for more than a couple of seconds. No answer exists.
2007-03-24 20:15:22 · answer #10 · answered by jamisojo 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋