2007-03-24 15:17:44 · 5 answers · asked by James 4 in Arts & Humanities ➔ Books & Authors
He was using the best one. When his plays got popular, he went to live in London in the midst of the "theater" and his wife stayed on the Avon and raised the kids. There has been discussion about their marriage right along with who really wrote Shakespeare's plays. Some people think they were a loving couple, and some think that he had way too much fun in London. He did go home after he quit writing.
2007-03-24 15:23:42 · answer #1 · answered by PAT 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
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RE:
Why did Shakespeare leave his "second best bed" to his wife?
2015-08-10 09:28:49 · answer #2 · answered by Nate 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I believe the "best bed" was the one used for guests. The "second best bed" was the one husband and wife shared. Thus he was leaving her "their" bed.
2007-03-24 21:09:39 · answer #3 · answered by sallyotas 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I dont think anyone truly knows the answer to that -- except you might take into consideration that the first batch of sonnets were written to a young man. Perhaps that's who got his best bed. Pax - C.
2007-03-24 15:22:23 · answer #4 · answered by Persiphone_Hellecat 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Perhaps this is oversimplifying things, but I wonder if it ever occurred to anyone that she simply liked it better than the "best" one?
2007-03-24 17:24:05 · answer #5 · answered by BasBleu 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋