Surely that this can't be measured, therefore must contradict some advertsing legislation, or due to it not being a word does it fall outside advertsing codes. If its a long answer make sure you use a keyboard with extra typability.
2007-03-24 11:45:59 · 5 answers · asked by Anonymous in Entertainment & Music ➔ Television
Such statistics are "true" inasmuch as the advertiser and his client create the tests and manage the results to support their product. Example: The advertiser gets 20 people to use the old product and 20 people to use the new product, then asks both groups if using the product made it easier to comb their hair. Seven of first group say yes while 13 of the second group say yes. The advertiser reports the results as indicating that product 2 is "86% more combable" than product 1 because 86% more subjects answered favorably. If the advertiser is not happy with the results, they can bring in a new group of subjects and test again until they get the results they want. Sometimes the tests are even more crass than this. The question may be asked "Which product would you think will make it easier to comb your hair, the old formula or the new, improved formula?" If 85% of the subjects answer product 2, that's how it shows up in the advertising.
2007-03-24 11:59:18 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
combability: sounds like a made up word to me
2007-03-24 18:55:27 · answer #2 · answered by nowyouknow 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Kind of like saying,"New and Improved".
Which is it? It can't be both.
2007-03-24 18:51:04 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Kinda makes you wonder what it was like before.
2007-03-24 18:49:54 · answer #4 · answered by johN p. aka-Hey you. 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
all a scam to get you to buy the product!
2007-03-24 19:02:59 · answer #5 · answered by Just passing the time! 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋