I bought my house in 1995 by myself with no one else on the loan and have not refinanced. Instead of refinancing I want to sell the house to my wife..can I do this? Also can I be her cosigner?
2007-03-24 10:12:58 · 6 answers · asked by shanet963 1 in Business & Finance ➔ Renting & Real Estate
If you are married then no. She is probably entitled to part of the estate anyway so she would lose out if she paid you full value for it..If you did somehow manage to sell it to her and then you Divorced you would be entitled to part of her estate so she would be the big loser. It just doesnt make any sense what you are attempting to do..
2007-03-24 10:19:29 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Depending on what state even though the house is in your name it is still half hers.If i was you i would refi if she has better credit than you could be the cosigner.That put a higher income ratio and you could get a better loan.
2007-03-24 17:20:26 · answer #2 · answered by what did you say 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It depends what state you are in, specifically if it is a community property state. If it is then, no, you can't sell to yourself, it will look like you are attempting some sort of tax fraud. If you are not in a community property state you can sell to her, but not co-signing, as again, you are selling to yourself.
2007-03-24 17:16:46 · answer #3 · answered by Landlord 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
you could sell it to her but you can't cosign as you can't be the seller as well as the buyer at the same time.
2007-03-24 17:20:37 · answer #4 · answered by Akbar B 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
She needs to get her own mortgage or you need to add her to the deed.
2007-03-24 17:16:27 · answer #5 · answered by Tyrone Biggums 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
only if she ask's 4 a DIVORCE lol
2007-03-24 17:16:28 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋