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and according to the book, Harvest of Empire. A History of Latinos in America by Juan Gonzalez, is it sucessful in showing how groups in the US gained their wealth by weakening Latin America's economies?

2007-03-24 06:23:34 · 2 answers · asked by fishball 1 in Arts & Humanities History

2 answers

For years historians and critics have complained that our history is both too Euro-centric and also too Britain-centric. One could argue this but that isn't your question. Now some critics have begun to suggest that we have become too Latin-centric (or Hispano-centric), Native American - centric etc.

When the British colonists first arrived in the New World they did not find the fabulous wealth of gold and gem stones that were found, exploited, stolen, etc. in the Spanish and Portugese colonies. British colonists' entire existence was based on the ability to grow food and to adapt to the new environment. In Jamestown in 1607 they met this challenge with very mixed results, suffering through one horrendous winter and year after another for perhaps a decade. In Plymouth in 1620 the challenges were much the same as they too went through their 'starving time'.

What finally allowed the colonists to thrive around Virginia was that they found a cash crop that could be sold for a profit, tobacco. One might suggest that John Rolfe, the husband of Pocahontas was the greatest mass murderer in the history of the world for introducing this crop to Virginia, but it definitely allowed the colony to flourish. Of course it also made Virginia heavily depended on the ability to acquire labor and since indentures weren't working out all that well, they turned to African labor. The first Africans were introduced to Virginia in 1619 (the same year the first boat load of women arrived to marry/serve the men of Virginia ... now there is an essay/paper beggin to be written).

In Plymouth they were more fortunate in having a disciplined system of small self-sufficient farms and an on-going supply system of labor and goods from Britain. They had little need for slaves although they had both African and Native American slaves (Tituba in history was really a Carib Indian, not an African as Arthur Miller has suggested). Their self-discipline, faulty though it was at times, allowed New England to prosper, and if a family was fortunate enough to have many healthy sons, good land, and the luck of the harvest (or by using hard work) then they were able to quickly acquire wealth.

2007-03-24 07:09:51 · answer #1 · answered by John B 7 · 0 0

The early settlers in the colonies had little if any contact with Latin Americans for several reasons so that could not have effected Latinos.

1. Latin America was settled primarly by the Spanish. They extended themselves into Florida, Texas, and Southwest States including California. Due to the distance and the lack of explorers into the region, there was little trade with them or the taking of resources from that area.

2. Georgia was settled by prisoners mainly to prevent the Spaniards from moving into the other colonies.

3. The English were not really trade minded with the Spanish so they did what they could to prevent all trade with Latin America.

2007-03-24 13:05:55 · answer #2 · answered by scotishbob 5 · 0 0

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