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2007-03-24 06:19:47 · 3 answers · asked by Bruno S 3 in Arts & Humanities Philosophy

3 answers

:) Some resources to get you started...

2007-03-24 06:32:01 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Kant argued that moral requirements are based on a standard of rationality he dubbed the “Categorical Imperative” (CI). Immorality thus involves a violation of the CI and is thereby irrational. Kant agreed with many of his predecessors that an analysis of rationality will reveal only a requirement to conform to instrumental principles. Yet he argued that conformity to the CI (a non-instrumental principle) and hence to moral requirements themselves, can nevertheless be shown to be essential to rational agency. This argument was based on his striking doctrine that a rational will must be regarded as autonomous, or free in the sense of being the author of the law that binds it. The fundamental principle of morality — the CI — is none other than this law of an autonomous will. Thus, at the heart of Kant's moral philosophy is a conception of reason whose reach in practical affairs goes well beyond that of a Humean ‘slave’ to the passions. Moreover, it is the presence of this self-governing reason in each person that Kant thought offered decisive grounds for viewing each as possessed of equal worth and deserving of equal respect.

2007-03-24 06:50:25 · answer #2 · answered by AMBER D 6 · 0 0

Paul the apostle says all issues are permissable from God yet no longer all issues are effectual. that's the rationalization for moderation. to be sure sin is to sin. Jesus knew no sin. in ordinary terms knew God. All excitement is physically powerful and is derived from God the father. Kant is a manipulative swine.

2016-10-01 10:23:37 · answer #3 · answered by vyky 4 · 0 0

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