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if so. how did he prove that there is a reality independent of us? was he right in his philosophy? or has he been contradicted?

2007-03-23 20:08:43 · 2 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities Philosophy

2 answers

Kant never denies the existence of "a reality independent of us." In the Critique of Pure Reason, Kant states that sensations are caused by something which is other than us. However, he holds that we do not experience these entities as they are in themselves because all of our sensations are subject to certain a priori conditions (i.e. space and time). Thus, it is a first principle that our sensations are caused by independently existing entities.

Is Kant right? He certainly has been contradicted by many other philosophers. Whether he has been disproven depends, in many ways, on your first principles. The basic question regarding the moderns is whether the proper objects of knowledge are ideas and sensations rather than things. As a Peripatetic, I say that Kant is wrong. I acknowledge that if one grants his first principles (which I don't), his argument follows.

If your question refers to the existence of God, look into the Groundwork for a Future Metaphysics of Morals by Kant. Or you could try out Aristotle....

2007-03-24 11:46:53 · answer #1 · answered by checkhead 2 · 0 0

Yes! Jesus can but Emanuel Can't.

2007-03-24 06:02:14 · answer #2 · answered by emiliosailez 6 · 0 1

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