2007-03-23 02:08:30 · 4 answers · asked by dsfsdfsd d 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Other - Science
By definition, if the distribution is a normal distribution, it can be represented by the bell curve
2007-03-23 03:41:12 · answer #1 · answered by dogsafire 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
True. The normal distribution function is
p[x]=A*e^{[(x-mean)/sd]^2}
Which is a bell-shaped curve, with width=sd and highest point at x=mean.
2007-03-23 05:49:33 · answer #2 · answered by Adam B 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Well, one can quibble over the degenerate case when the standard deviation is zero, or over multivariate cases -- but basically the answer is "True".
2007-03-23 02:13:51 · answer #3 · answered by Curt Monash 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
That would be true.
It would also be carried down to the quantum effect that makes our universe what it is,
2007-03-23 02:14:04 · answer #4 · answered by Billy Butthead 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋