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Please answer using reasons why or why not. I will give the best answer 10 points tommorow.

2007-03-23 01:55:58 · 12 answers · asked by Willie 4 in Arts & Humanities History

12 answers

I was taught that it was basically a "draw", since at least officially (that is, by the terms of the treaty) everything was returned to its status before the war.

But if you take a close look at the whole American situation in the decades leading up to the war, and how the war was a key piece in CHANGING that situation (esp vis a vis the ability to sail and trade freely), you have to conclude that America ultimately gained a great deal of its main objective in the war. So even if I wouldn't necessarily say the U.S. "won" the war, the endeavor was in key respects a "success" (even when the successes were not always directly tied to victories in battle).

Some even think the U.S. lost because they believe that a central objective was to conquer the Canadian territories. Though this certainly played an important role, it was, in fact, NOT among the war's central causes, nor was it EVER among the official reasons given for going to war. So yes, they did fail to take Canada -- but is that "losing the war" if that's not what the WAR's purpose was??

To get the right answer it's necessary to be clear about why the war was started/what the goals were.

As I hinted, much of the misunderstanding has to do with the notion that war must be about "taking territory" (or at least that this particular war was). By that measure NO ONE won the war, since at the war's end all territories were returned to whoever controlled them before the war.

But, in fact, gaining territory was NOT the objective of EITHER side!

More specifically, two major mistakes are often made here:

a) "the British were trying to retake their former American colonies (and failed)" No, that was NOT the British objective!

b) "a key American war-aim was to take Canada (perhaps annex it), and they were repelled" No. While there were those who desired this, this was NOT the reason for attacking the British in Canada and the government never stated any such thing

In other words, our Canadian friends are operating under the misapprehension that we declared war on THEM and/or on the British in order to annex Canada. But that simply is not the case.

---------------------

The main (and stated) objectives of the U.S. are listed below. Note that each of them was, in fact, accomplished, though not necessarily all because of the war itself!

1) impressment of U.S. sailors. This was actually settled before war, with Britain largely acquiescing (though with slow communication the Americans did not yet know this)

2) interference in American TRADE, and hence with American sovereignty/independence.

This was mainly the result of the wars between Britain and France (and Americans suffered at the hands of BOTH powers). Once that war ended, the British no longer interfered in the same way. Thus the American objective was achieved, though not necessarily by the war!!

3) "Indian question" -- in the Northwest frontier wars. the British supported the Indians
this was THE reason for invading the Canadian territories. (Though some in the Western states wanted to annex the Canadian colonies, this was NOT the reason for the invasion, and the U.S. government never pushed for it.) Note, that the U.S. was indeed successful in reaching this objective. After the war the British were never again involved in assisting Indians vs. the U.S.


Although Britain was NOT attempting to retake its former colonies, all three of these issues DO have to do with the exercise of American independence/sovereignty, which was being treated rather lightly by the European powers.

Thus it is understandable that Americans regarded this as a "second war of Independence" even if it was not that in the STRICT sense. And this overarching objective -- of asserting its own sovereignty in issues of territory ("Indian question") and trade, America WAS successful.

SOME of the American success was an INDIRECT result of the war. In particular, the cutting off of trade with England ended up strengthening U.S. independent manufacture...leading to greater ECONOMIC independence.

Another indirect result -- the expansion of the American navy in order to conduct the war contributed in other ways to America's ability to assert its sovereignty. One prime example -- immediately after the War the U.S. Navy was able to fully and finally address the problem of the Barbary Pirates in the quick and very successful SECOND Barbary War (1815) . In short, by the end of 1815, and in part THROUGH the War of 1812, the U.S. finally DID accomplish the sort of freedom to sail the seas and trade as it wished -- something it had hoped to gain through the American Revolution but never quite achieved.

Further, after the War of 1812 the U.S. was bolder to proclaim (and act on) its refusal to allow ANY European interference in the Western Hemisphere (note esp. the Monroe Doctrine).

Not all that bad for a "draw"!

2007-03-23 05:48:10 · answer #1 · answered by bruhaha 7 · 1 0

Yes, the USA won. Because the Brits went home without a win. The Brits left again. I'm sorry but it was a British loss. Brits always throw Vietnam in the faces of Americans. Because we signed a truce with the NVA and left Vietnam. Because of this. the Brits say America lost its war with Vietnam. Now the show is on the other foot, and the Brits call it a stalemate. If the war of 1812 was a stalemate, then so was Vietnam.

2014-06-11 10:08:17 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

The primary cause of the war of 1812 was over English taking people who were formerly British citizens or their descendants and taking them back to england. Also there was a matter of supremacy or domination of trade over the open seas.

While there were battles fought, British lost battle of New Orleans (but that was after the peace treaty had been signed), the British burned Washington, D.C., there was not a decisive winner or loser.

It seems that the British got tired of fighting with the Americans and just quit (similar to Revolutionary War). Also they figured out that in the long run, it was a war they would not win even if they did not lose (they learned quick, a shame americans don't- vietnam and iraq).

2007-03-23 02:05:42 · answer #3 · answered by scotishbob 5 · 2 0

It was a draw. The Treaty of Ghent that was signed was mainly just an agreement to end the war. However, in a sense, it was a victory for the Americans. The Americans were now respected by other countries because they had held out against one of the most powerfull navies in the world. There was an increased sense of pride among the Americans because of this, and to top it all, when Tecunseh was killed in the Battle of the Thames River, the Native American resistence to the westward expansion weakened.

2007-03-23 02:53:07 · answer #4 · answered by hallucinatingcandles 4 · 0 0

I think the main answer has already been given. The treaty of Ghent is best described as setting up a détente. Everything went back to its "status quo ante bellum", meaning nobody won or lost territory. Yet it represented a major victory for the US in several aspects.
Many historians view this war as a second war for independence. The US fought Britain for its sovereignty of the seas and matched UK power in their field of dominance. Furthermore it is the first war of aggression (as opposed to wars of defense) on the part of the US, the first in a long line of US sparked wars. For this reason, and for the role of the first imperial president, Madison, who established the precedent of executive wars (contrary to constitutional guidelines giving war declaration power to congress) this is plausibly the war that set up the road to the US empire.
Once again, the war itself was not won. But the successful defiance of British maritime power (the most powerful navy in the world until the end of the first war), the first precedent of imperial presidency and the establishment of US sovereignty can be considered as the victorious legacy of the war of 1812.

2007-03-23 03:08:49 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

err that's a tricky one.

it was more of a draw.

The US and Britain signed a peace accord, but technically the British were ahead in the game.

If the Battle of New Orleans happened before the signing of the Treaty and the war continued I think we would have seen America come out on top, or Britain would have signed a more favorable treaty.

Did the US win? only in the sense we held out long enough to garner a truce.

2007-03-23 02:01:58 · answer #6 · answered by Stone K 6 · 3 0

I think that you will find that the Treaty of Ghent restored matters to the state they were in before the war. For full details go to this site:

2007-03-23 11:56:14 · answer #7 · answered by Retired 7 · 0 0

If we hadn't we would all be speaking with British accents.
In 1814 we took a little trip
along with cornel Jackson down the mighty mississip,
We took a little bacon and we took a little beans
And we fought the bloody British in the town of New Orleans...

2007-03-23 03:17:58 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 2

Nobody really won the war. The end result was 'status quo ante bellum'.

2007-03-23 09:03:12 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Is there ever a winner in war ? the US obviously came out on
top -- we pay our politicians their allowances, not the Queens

2007-03-23 02:06:52 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

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