Does anyone have a opinion or know why the creators of Shrek decided to make Robin Hood french? I have a few ideas, but would like a few more!
2007-03-22 22:40:55 · 7 answers · asked by Marlene 3 in Entertainment & Music ➔ Movies
http://toisondor.byu.edu/dscriptorium/aix166/ http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Jeu_de_Robin_et_Marion https://www.indiana.edu/~mrktpl/focus/02.shtml http://www.anonymus.qc.ca/AdRME.html Adam de la Halle, one of the last French Troubadors sang about Robin Hood & they actually have the sheet music & have a cd of it. Also an extinct French dialect called Picardy is the earliest mention of Robin & Marian.
2007-03-25 17:57:35 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Actually, John, Shrek was voiced by Mike Myers who is actually from Canada. Nice try though.
2007-03-27 11:24:49 · answer #2 · answered by George R 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
a million. Is it real? sure - Richard spoke French as his first language and incredibly much no English. Richard replaced into the son of Henry Duke of Anjou (additionally King Henry II of britain) and Eleanor of Aquitaine - the two French. Richard replaced into born and raised in France and (as Das says, above), in basic terms spent some months of his ten 3 hundred and sixty 5 days reign in England. 2. Why did he not talk English if he replaced into ruling the English human beings? Richard lived much less that one hundred fifty years after the Norman invasion of britain. there replaced right into a large and bitter divide between the invaders and the subjected human beings. The ruling type have been incredibly much all Norman French (distinctive from the the remainder of France being descended from 'Northmen' - Vikings) or close by collaborators who had accompanied Norman customs. in basic terms peasants might have immediately spoken the close by version of Saxon - very reminiscent of Russian till now the revolution, while the Russian aristocracy spoke French, in basic terms speaking Russian to their servants. 3. Why is it theory that England has the oldest and grandest background in Europe? that is not - not in Europe, besides! I see this question replaced into first published on the U. S. internet site which excuses this fake impact ;) In Europe, we tend to think of of Italy and Greece as having the oldest, grandest background. comparable to britain having a grand background i might think of is predicated on the full-scale adoption of Classical Roman virtues and standards as our own concerning to the comparable time all of us started colonising the the remainder of the planet - giving the impact that we've been the organic heirs to Augustus. England replaced into oftentimes seen via our neighbours to be a coarse, antagonistic and barbarous u . s ., suitable up till we've been given our army jointly and started prevailing sea battles. England has a comparatively interesting and bloody violent background, quite in this era, whether it replaced into hardly ever grand. a large style of the well known image of the medieval international, packed with chivalrous knights and courtly love and so on is a plenty later invention, courtesy of Romantic poets, Pre-Raphaelite painters and different sentimentalists.
2016-10-19 10:00:01 · answer #3 · answered by scafuri 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
because they couldn't find anyone to do a convincing "nottingham" accent...and the americans wouldn't understand it. I'm not being racist here either, have a look at any film with Scousers (people from liverpool) in it - ALL the accents of the actors have been toned down a bit.
2007-03-23 05:05:58 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
the same reason shrek has a subtle scottish burr.they are americans.
2007-03-26 13:04:39 · answer #5 · answered by john t 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
For the same reason Puss in Boots was spanish
2007-03-28 07:02:57 · answer #6 · answered by Momo 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
I thought he was an Indian ..
LOL . Joking .
xD
2007-03-22 22:43:00 · answer #7 · answered by Vexations 1 · 0⤊ 1⤋