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If that is true, why does the Constitution contain the wording that some men are considered to be worth three-fifths of a person?

2007-03-22 18:58:57 · 19 answers · asked by JT 1 in Arts & Humanities History

19 answers

Trust me on this. If TJ were alive today, he would be politically correct and say all persons, regardless of race, ethnicity, or gender, are created equal. And he would be against slavery. The 3/5 of a person refers to slave, and the Constitution has been amended to abolish slavery.

2007-03-22 19:02:18 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1 2

Hi JT,

I've read all the answers to your question; and the funny thing is, nobody really answers it.

You're right, of course. The declaration of Independence states that that all men are created equal. But what you need to understand is that the Declaration was merely a philosophical statement -- it was never meant to be construed as law. The Constitution, on the other hand, IS meant to be construed as law. You could say that the Declaration was the face America wanted to show to the rest of the world, but the Constitution was what the nation really thought.

It's hard for modern to people to accept; but many peole in the 18th century owned slaves, and yet still had no problem subscribing to Jefferson's words. They rationalized their position by saying that all men ARE created equal, but that slaves aren't people, and therefore, the Declaration doesn't apply to them.

As an earlier answerer correctly pointed out, the 3/5ths Compromise was about representation in Congress. This is where the hypocrisy really comes out. The slaveholders who believed that slaves weren't people demanded that slaves be counted as people for purposes of determining population. This shows the inherent contradiction in their position. And as time went on, it became increasingly impossible to sustain the fiction. That is why the Civil War can be seen as historically inevitable. Contradictions of this magnitude are rarely resolved without war.

Great question. Hope this helps. Cheers, mate.

2007-03-22 20:20:33 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

African slaves, at the time were not considered "men", they were considered "savages", and thus, sub human. The 3/5's compromise was instituted for Congressional seats and taxation. The southern states wanted their slaves counted to gain more seats in Congress, northern states, claimed that the slaves should be counted as part of the tax base. By calling them 3/5's of a person was a way to compromise both positions and avoid the slavery issue

I always say its kind of hard to apply the standards and morality of today to that of centuries past......

http://projects.edtech.sandi.net/roosevelt/constitution/threefifths.htm

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Three-fifths_compromise

2007-03-22 19:12:35 · answer #3 · answered by free_eagle716 4 · 0 0

This constitutional wording has been intepreted by some to indicate that blacks were 3/5 of a person. Actually, it was regarding who would be counted for taxation purposes and representation in congress.

The north wanted to count all free persons, the south wanted to count all persons, including slaves. This would give the south much more representation (since slaves couldn't vote) than the north.

The compromise reached was that they would only count 3/5 of the slaves.

2007-03-22 19:10:51 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Thomas Jefferson was an enigma in many respects.
These flowing words could have been designed not to draw reference to equality of "Races" but to raise sentiment for a war with England by capitalizing on the plight of a common man subject to rule a distant monarchy.
All but a few of our" founding fathers" profited enormously by eliminating England's rule of the Colonies.

2007-03-22 19:26:07 · answer #5 · answered by dougie 4 · 0 0

Standards of society at the time. But what gives him or any other man the right to define the worth of any "person" or their equality. Ideally every person is equal but realistically our equality is determined by many factors. Truth be told there is no equality there is always someone better and people are always held to different standards.

2007-03-22 20:03:29 · answer #6 · answered by Sue S 3 · 0 0

In all times, many people think through their wallets, regardless of right and wrong. Certain of the original colonies couldn't continue to line their pockets as easily if they had to admit that the slaves and indentured servants serving them were human.

Unfortunately, the money they had spoke louder than truth, and they were able to force it in.

Thankfully, the Constitution is a living document, and that is no longer actually in the working version of it.

Now if we could just clean out Redneck brains as easily.

2007-03-22 19:16:30 · answer #7 · answered by Matt P 2 · 0 0

i dont know, the three-fifths compromise was a clear contradiction to the constitution. i mean jefferson wrote that and he had slaves. he shudve written, "All White men are created equal" , wudve made alot more sense

2007-03-22 19:07:09 · answer #8 · answered by nickname 4 · 0 0

This is not true, not all men are created equal. Gay men and women are not equal beacuse, in most states they can not get married and in 43 states they can be fired and lawfully discriminated against in the workplace or elsewhere beacuse they are gay. In some hick states like Kansas and Oklahoma gay people can not have anal sex. If Jefferson's words are not true, then there is no "what if".

2007-03-22 19:03:46 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

Probably because Jefferson, along with several other key founders, was a slave owner. In fact, he had several children out of wedlock with Sally Hemmings. Imagine what sort of man would own his mistress and children. It's amazing that someone who could write such noble words was so repugnant in life.

2007-03-24 01:03:53 · answer #10 · answered by anywherebuttexas 6 · 0 0

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