2007-03-22 02:28:17 · 6 answers · asked by Joey J 1 in Social Science ➔ Gender Studies
They had none since they were considered property first of fathers then of husbands. Rape laws still reflect those beliefs significantly as the punishment is comproble to property crimes. They could not own property if they were married or sign contracts. Nor go to Law School.
2007-03-22 06:16:49 · answer #1 · answered by Deirdre O 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Depends where the woman was.
My grandmother was born around that year and was working in a Lancashire cotton mill at nine years old (Lancashire is in northern England). Half a day at work, half at school; then at 12 full time in the mill. But it was no different for boys. My grandad ran away from home and joined the merchant navy at age 14. By the time he came back at 15 (his mother bought him out) he'd been right round the world to places like Valparaiso and the Philippines (sorry, this is off the point of your question).
It was the 1920s before women got the right to vote in Britain.
2007-03-22 02:30:25 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
You had the right to cook, clean, sew and other tasks of general slavery for your family and do as your husband said.
But women did not understand the "rights" as they were read to them and so we overthrew the vicious male domination , burned our bras and girdles ...gave the hoops from our skirts to the children to play with and TOOK our rights as we understood them to be! It just took us a few years.
2007-03-22 02:33:23 · answer #3 · answered by ? 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Look it up on google
2007-03-25 07:06:47 · answer #4 · answered by komical 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
They were allowed to breathe.
2007-03-22 02:31:40 · answer #5 · answered by Dr Dee 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
They had none.
2007-03-22 02:30:32 · answer #6 · answered by Ted 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋