I have never been married (aaaaah didummmmms)
The one thing that puts me off marriage is the way the law is in favour for the women. (UK)
Say I owned my own house and she was in rented accomodation we decided she should move in.
And after four years we decided to get wed.
Three years further down the line we became 'incompatible' so we decided to divorce.
From what I understand even though I set her up in MY house she is then entitled to fifty per cent of the house and its contents?
Also If I have a private pension she is entitled to some of it-when I have grafted to pay into this scheme and she has not paid into the scheme.
(I am not 100% sure about how the law is in these situations)
Can anyone elaborate please
2007-03-22
00:27:24
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3 answers
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asked by
davie
2
in
Family & Relationships
➔ Marriage & Divorce
And the oppositeside of the coin. If I moved in with her then would I be entitled to fifty per cent?
2007-03-22
00:40:36 ·
update #1