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i have already solved this but i need to know of its correct, plz tell me the answer:
integration of (sinx/ 1+cos^2x)dx
upper limit pi lower limit 0.

2007-03-22 00:26:42 · 2 answers · asked by Titan 4 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

2 answers

Put cos x = z so-sinx*dx =dz So you get the integral between (upper limit -1,lower limit 1) of - dz/(1+z^2) which is-Arctan(z) =-arctan(-1) +arctan(1) = pi/2

2007-03-22 01:48:07 · answer #1 · answered by santmann2002 7 · 0 0

check out in "advanced engineering mathematics" by erwin kreyszig, 8e, u'll never get such doubts again. (i believe the 9th e is out).

2007-03-22 07:39:10 · answer #2 · answered by sasha 1 · 0 0

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