Well, first of all sin(x) is bounded between -1 and 1. Which means that sin(x)^2 is always between zero and one.
Therefore your series can be compared with 1/n sqrt(n).
Notice that 1/n sqrt(n) is always bigger than or equal to to sin(x)^2/n sqrt(n).
The sum 1/n sqrt(n) converges because of the p-series test.
Therefore your original series also converges.
2007-03-21 18:38:58
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answer #1
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answered by The Prince 6
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The sin^2 x part doesn't matter since it's independent of n, thus you only need to consider whether the sum of 1/(n sqrt n) converges. This is the same as 1/n^{3/2}. As you may know the sum of 1/n^p converges when p>1. You can see this by considering the integral
\int_1^infty 1/n^p dn = 1/(p-1).
2007-03-22 01:26:50
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answer #2
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answered by Sean H 5
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Note that sin² x is constant w.r.t. n, so [n=1, â]âsin² x/(nân) = sin² x [n=1, â]â1/(nân), which, like all series of the form [n=1, â]â1/(n^s) with s>1, converges. (You may prove this with the integral test -- 1/n^s is monotone decreasing, so [n=1, â]â1/n^s converges if [1, â]â«1/x^s dx does. But for s>1, 1-s<0, so [1, â]â«1/x^s dx = [1, â]â«x^(-s) dx = x^(1-s)/(1-s) | [1, â] = [hââ]lim h^(1-s)/(1-s) - 1^(1-s)/(1-s) = 1/(s-1)).
2007-03-22 01:22:12
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answer #3
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answered by Pascal 7
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Well since (sin(x))^2 oscillates between -1 and 1, and (n(sqrt(n))) is equivalent to n^(3/2) which grows rapidly as n-> oo, 1/oo=0.
2007-03-22 01:20:22
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answer #4
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answered by the_really_good_son 1
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