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2007-03-21 12:08:51 · 12 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Mythology & Folklore

12 answers

Roughly 400 - 1000

2007-03-21 12:12:30 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 4 1

The traditional answer is that the Dark Ages started in 476AD and and lasted till 1066AD. I say "traditional" because there has in recent years been some dispute on the subject.

The significance of 476 is that it is the year when the last Roman emperor in the West was dethroned by a German mercenary in a coup. Since the German, Odoacer (or something like that), didn't bother to replace the last emperor with anybody, even a puppet, this date is generally considered to mark the Fall of the Roman Empire. Dispute arises, because the Empire actually continued to exist in the east centered on Constantinople (modern Istanbul) although it became more and more Greek speaking.

As for 1066, that's the year William the Conquerer took England from the Saxons and founded the modern British monarchy with (who else?) himself as king. Of course, Anglo historians saying this event marked the end of the Dark Ages is outrageously ethnocentric, as well as royalist and classist, so I kind of agree with the people who don't buy it.

Many Europeans prefer the date 800AD for the end of the Dark Ages. That was the year the Frankish king Charlemagne was crowned Emperor of Europe by the Pope. Of course, that date has it's own problems, specifically a whole lot of crap was yet to happen, including the whole massive, gory episode known as the Viking Invasions. Also it's still pretty ethnocentric only from the French and German perspective rather than the Anglo one....

I could go on and on, but I've probably already given you more than enough, right?

Nimadan

2007-03-21 19:34:22 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

The "Dark Ages" is an out of date term - no longer used by Historians. The term now used is "Early Middle Ages" The Anglo-centric version of the Dark ages is roughly from when Rome leaves Britain until the Norman Invasions So - roughly, 400 - 1066... France for example - has it finishing much earlier - with the rise of Holy Roman Empire under Charlemagne. The term can also be used for a period of Ancient Greek/Aegean history that seems vague and undocumented. Roughly - the transition from Bronze Age to Iron Age.

2007-03-21 19:19:28 · answer #3 · answered by Tirant 5 · 2 0

It depends on which sector of life you are talking about. The European (Roman) dark ages can be listed from the 4th century even prior to the first sacking of Rome in areas such as poetry and philosophy (no original thought), economics (regression to a barter system), and social mobility (Rome instituted a caste system because their society was breaking down). The end of the dark ages is usually listed around 1000 AD when cities started to become more powerful. While some historians (esp Gibbon) blame Christianity for the dark ages, the fall of Rome was inevitable because Rome made nothing and depended on conquest for its lifestyle. Once conquest ended, the money dried up.

2007-03-21 19:46:09 · answer #4 · answered by j p 1 · 2 0

The “Dark Ages” are commonly considered to be the early part of the period known as the Middle Ages. Often the term “Dark Ages’ refers to the initial five hundred years following the fall of Rome. It is thought of as beginning around 450 AD and continuing till 1000 AD
.

2007-03-21 19:18:19 · answer #5 · answered by Leah 4 · 2 0

Pretty much after the end of classical societies and before the Renaissance.

Greece, Rome, and some other places were doing pretty good up until about 400, and England, France, and Italy didn't get things going in the Renaissance for several hundred years. 1000 is about right, more or less. It took a few hundred years to get to the Renaissance, but I don't think things were necessarily "dark" all the way until 1400.

I mean, art and literature were pretty limited at the time and nobody kept very good records.

2007-03-21 19:20:17 · answer #6 · answered by SlowClap 6 · 1 1

from Saxons coming to the end of the Vikings when the French arrived. Only called the dark ages because they didn't write much down so we're a bit 'in the dark' about them.

Silverbirch (nice name) has dates right they should get the 10 points.

2007-03-21 19:17:49 · answer #7 · answered by heathen_mum 4 · 0 1

1485 to 1951 CE.
I'm not taking the piss. The first was when Malleus Maleficarum was first published. The second when The Witchcraft Act was repealed in the UK. Fairly dark ages from my perspective

2007-03-22 07:11:42 · answer #8 · answered by Spike J 3 · 1 0

From the collapse of Romano britain in the 5th Century to the new millenium thereabouts when the "Vikings" arrived. Nothing to do with the dark, just not much recorded history for our "enlightenment".

2007-03-22 06:00:49 · answer #9 · answered by Pattythepunk 3 · 0 0

More commonly known as, the `Thatcher Years`.

2007-03-21 19:46:56 · answer #10 · answered by ED SNOW 6 · 1 1

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