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5 answers

Yes, consider Coulomb's law

F=1/(4πε) q1q2/r^2

if either q is 0, then there is no force between it and another charged item.

2007-03-21 11:32:52 · answer #1 · answered by Rob M 4 · 0 0

If 2 bodies charm to a minimum of one yet another, then one in all them might desire to be charged. you could not tell, with out some test, which the charged one is. The charged one, attracts opposite fees interior the 2nd (uncharged) physique and on a similar time repels a similar fees. the two forces might desire to stability yet they don't because of fact the attracted cost pass slightly closer to the charged physique and so sense the charm enhanced, jointly as the repelled fees pass away slightly and so sense the repulsion slightly much less. the two bodies that are attracting might the two be charged yet if so they might desire to have opposite fees. lower back we've no rapid way of telling ( merely by using looking) if the physique is charged, or what the cost is. If the bodies repel one yet another then we do understand that the two are charged and the two might desire to have a similar cost ( Like fees repel). we don't understand which cost that's ( must be beneficial or unfavorable ). Thats the lot. not too plenty to learn, eh?

2016-11-27 20:33:33 · answer #2 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

The third answer is almost correct. Bring a negatively-charged conducting sphere near a neutral one, and electrons on the neutral sphere will tend to be repelled away, leaving the nearer side with a net positive charge. See the second reference for how an effect like this works in practice.

2007-03-21 18:24:27 · answer #3 · answered by Frank N 7 · 0 0

Yes, because everything is charged. (except some subatomic particles). Everything in this universe has a slight charge.

2007-03-21 11:28:38 · answer #4 · answered by imajiknation 2 · 0 1

NO//////// if one of them is not charged then the other one is just attracting it to itself

2007-03-21 11:29:15 · answer #5 · answered by dan v 2 · 0 1

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