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Both involve taking the life of a person , both are felonies that carry prison time. Yet one can get their driving priveliges back and the second can't. Neither planned on killing anyone. It just happened.
I know alot will say that the drunk made a choice to drink and drive and the other was just an accident caused by misjudgement. But studies show one drink impairs your judgement. So if he/she had several drinks who's to says they was able to make that choice since their judgement was impaired. That would actually mean then both are mistakes in judgement so whats the difference ?

2007-03-21 07:40:25 · 5 answers · asked by SirCs2UUC 2 in Politics & Government Law & Ethics

5 answers

No one should ever take that first drink if they know they are going to have to drive. Driving is getting more and more dangerous, but people continue drinking, talking on cell phones, putting on make-up, eating, fighting with their kids, etc. when they should be paying serious attention to what they are doing. The roads are crowded, and people have forgotten the meaning of traffic lights and signs. Certainly, we should all be sober when we drive.

As to your question, both vehicular homicide and DUI manslaughter are abominable. These people should both be locked up for life. If you or someone you know is the culprit, go on and take your punishment, you deserve it.

2007-03-21 08:04:14 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

1

2016-06-03 21:12:29 · answer #2 · answered by ? 3 · 0 0

Vehicular Homicide and Manslaughter? How is that viable. I might see one cost for an illegal demise, however 2 for the equal crime? I'd say two decades and out in 10 for the illegal demise after which extra for the drug ownership further on. It is not adequate regardless that. PS... Thank you Ambay for clarifying that for me. That is smart.

2016-09-05 10:53:18 · answer #3 · answered by ? 3 · 0 0

About 25 years.

2007-03-21 07:50:10 · answer #4 · answered by Starla_C 7 · 0 0

It depends on the state. All such laws vary by state.

One state may have only one of them, or it may have both.
But the definitions would be enacted in the state criminal laws.

2007-03-21 07:43:01 · answer #5 · answered by coragryph 7 · 0 0

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