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hey guys!!! im very much in need of ur help in this one question of mine...

"Do you think that Statute of Westminster is an accurate comparison of the American Declaration of Independence of 1776?"

this is going to be helpful for me..i will deeply appreciate your answers.thank u very much =)

2007-03-21 06:49:37 · 3 answers · asked by hans M 1 in Education & Reference Homework Help

3 answers

I'd say no. Since I've honestly never heard of the Statute of Westminster. I'm assuming it's either English or somehow related to dog shows.

2007-03-21 06:54:23 · answer #1 · answered by buckleylives 2 · 0 0

It depends on which Statute of Westminster the question is referring to!

There was one in May 1275, drawn up between Parliament and Edward I, defined the legal privileges that landowners were allowed. These were based on the investigations carried out in 1274 into the landowners rights to own their land.

The other one was in 1931 when the self-governing dominions were given legislative independence from the British.

I assume you live in the US and will therefore know far more about the Declaration of Independemce than me!

2007-03-21 07:12:21 · answer #2 · answered by Charlie Babbage 5 · 0 0

I don't even recognize the "Statute of Westminster" and I do know what Westminster is. You should try searching that entry on the web or go to the library and see what they have. Is there any chance that there is enough information in your text and other reading material to cover this topic?

2007-03-21 06:56:57 · answer #3 · answered by St N 7 · 0 0

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