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Isn't nonexistence or existence only as an idea still a form of existence?

Which analogy is better?:

existence:nonexistence
1 : -1

existence:nonexistence
1 : 0

2007-03-20 13:48:16 · 23 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities Philosophy

23 answers

Me and a friend argued about this for a whole hour (we still have tapes of it), and we finnaly determined we both had no idea what we were talking about. A few days later, I started thinking about it again and decided that we could come to a sort of semi truce. Something can not exist physically, but for everything, there will always be the potential for idealogical existance, because once someone thinks something up, it exists, if only in thought. I would say that the second arguement is more accurate, because if you were to take the first one and say, add an existing object to a nonexisting object (theoretically, of course), you would get 0, and what is 0? That first one's assuming that something not existing is the counterpart of something existing.

RB Cubed: I think, therefore I am.

2007-03-20 13:57:02 · answer #1 · answered by pito16places 3 · 28 11

Everything has a counterpart, as in day and night and such.
Nonexistence itself exists because we recognize it as a term. Though nonexistence is an idea, this is where we get the difference between something imagined or potential and something realized. I think everything serves a purpose, so everything must exist in some form, and nonexistence is a form, a possibility of one in the least.
EDIT-I guess the main point is, nothing is something otherwise we wouldnt call it anything. Good question, thanks, really got me thinking.
EDIT-Somehow this reminds me of the conclusion I came to a few years ago that the only thing that is not possible or at least concievable is for something to be one thing completely and another thing completely at the same point in time.
EDIT-You should choose the guy under me for best answer, hes right, though, well maybe not, Im not sure, because arent our thoughts and concepts real to us?

2007-03-20 21:25:39 · answer #2 · answered by Socrates 3 · 4 1

well if something is to exist then it must be known of, therefore for something to be labeled nonexistent then in some form it exists but not always in a physical state. In a sense to be nonexistent that thing must have become a thought which very must existed but only in ones mind. so I'll end by saying that only in a physical or able to feel and touch or see for that matter can something not exists

2007-03-20 20:56:36 · answer #3 · answered by Rob . 1 · 1 1

Answer to first question: Yes. If it hasn't been thought by the mind nor perceived by the senses, nor understood and been reasoned out.

An idea is a form of existence.' I think therefore I am'

this analogy is better:
1:-1
it is highly unlikely that nonexistence have chances to exist due to the fact that the mind is susceptible to absorbing/emerging any idea(which is existence) concerning this universe, the mind can reason out spontaneously whether the idea is being perceived only by our mind or perceived by our mind +experienced by our senses simultaneously.
Summing up, I am trying to say everything exists=)

2007-03-21 07:48:18 · answer #4 · answered by oscar c 5 · 2 1

1:0

There is no such thing as "nothing" in terms of eternity. The best way to think of it is when people say the universe is expanding into "nothing".

This lets you see the truth that the universe actually isn't expanding into nothing, because the universe can't expand into something that completely doesn't exist, or never has existed ever in eternity.

Also, remember, blank space is not "nothing", it is a vaccuum.

A region of space is called a vacuum if it does not contain any matter. But it can contain physical fields. In fact, it is practically impossible to construct a region of space which contains no matter or fields, since gravity cannot be blocked and all objects at a non-zero temperature radiate electromagnetically. However, supposing such a region existed, it would still not be "nothing", since it has properties and a measurable existence as part of the quantum-mechanical vacuum.

Basically, nothing can never ever exist in any eternity, even if eternity collapsed into "nothingness", nothing still wouldn't be possible.

2007-03-20 21:03:22 · answer #5 · answered by Cords 2 · 3 0

Nonexistent things do exist, but in a different way. Anything that can be conceived of exists, and anything that cannot be conceived of by anyone in the universe does not. However, in its very nonexistence, you see, it does exist, because it has to exist (at least as an idea) in order to classify it as nonexistent. As for an analogy, existence:nonexistance::1:a.

2007-03-20 20:54:13 · answer #6 · answered by Dig a Pony 3 · 3 2

By even thinking of a nonexistence it comes to existence.

2007-03-20 21:04:52 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 4 0

1 : 0
why? because "something" exists. If it's nonexistent, then it isn't something, it's nothing.
Something can cease to exist, but then it's still something that did exist, but no longer does. Nothing is always nothing, and does not exist because there's nothing TO exist.

2007-03-20 20:53:18 · answer #8 · answered by Squirrley Temple 7 · 3 1

Yes

Everything is based off another thing in order to exist (See dependent origination or interdependent) These "things" ultimately are a manifestation of concepts and or ideas. Which do not exist ultimately.

existence:nonexistence
1:1

2007-03-20 21:33:43 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

1:0

2007-03-20 20:52:04 · answer #10 · answered by Wondrer 4 · 1 4

But only the idea itself exists. The object still doesn't. The second analogy is better.

2007-03-20 20:51:48 · answer #11 · answered by shmux 6 · 3 5

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