is it legitimate to say one 'reasoned out' because 'he understood'?. Is there a difference between 'understanding' and 'reasoning'?
2007-03-20 13:29:35 · 5 answers · asked by oscar c 5 in Arts & Humanities ➔ Philosophy
It is not always necessary to connote one has reasoned out because he understood.
We understand the world outside and inside our mind through experiences.
Our reasoning is inherent in our mind. It doesn't need experience to verify the reality of such resons.
2007-03-27 18:47:36 · update #1
Reasoning is connected to the mind, understanding goes from heart.
2007-03-27 04:20:41 · answer #1 · answered by ? 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Reason = Object = Perceptible = Sensible
Understanding = Subject = Perceiver = Sensor
No, you perceive, not because there's a perceiver, but because there's an object to perceive. Because if you could perceive but there wasn't any object, then you would only perceive yourself.
The other side of the coin is if there was only an object with no perceiver and this is where we usually get stuck!0!
So there's the object as the cause, and the perceiver as the effect.
2007-03-20 21:17:27 · answer #2 · answered by Alex 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Reasoning is to create and comprehend the problem/task at hand, it doesn't mean yuo understand, it means your trying to figure out a solution. understanding is when you already know the answer to the problem and know how to solve it.
2007-03-27 20:25:20 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, its not legitimate to say that. Theres a vast difference between the two.
2007-03-27 13:42:43 · answer #4 · answered by Izen G 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Understanding is getting something - comprehending it.
Reasoning refers to your thought processes, which could be correct or incorrect.
2007-03-20 20:37:14 · answer #5 · answered by Fat Bastard 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋