In a divorce of a marriage of barely 2 years, how likely would it be that the wife is rewarded the house if both her and the husband's name is on the deed, and the wife is on disability with social security? And obviously wouldn't be able to afford to move? And opinions/advice? Thanks.
2007-03-20
03:21:32
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10 answers
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asked by
willowrose24
2
in
Family & Relationships
➔ Marriage & Divorce
I suppose I'll add some extra details. It's my mother. This was her grandmothers home. The man she married almost 2 years ago bought the house with her and I'm pretty sure the money came from both of them although it might have come from his account, and his name is on the loan. No wrong was done that I know of other than emotional and mental abuse.
2007-03-20
03:59:32 ·
update #1