I don't think it is possible. If you are having trouble calculating 2+2, I think you should enter this problem in the calculator. If you entered this problem correctly, your answer should be 4, not 5.
2007-03-19 15:48:14
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answer #1
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answered by Kodak 3
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Its impossible for 2 + 2 to equal 5 if there is no modulus. This is because 2 = 1 + 1. Therefore, 2 + 2 = (1 + 1) + (1 + 1). 5 on the other hand is equal to 4 + 1. And since, 2 + 2 equals 4, this becomes (1 + 1) + (1 + 1) + 1. There is an additional 1 on the left which means that the two are not equal, thus, violating the principle of identity, it is similar to the laws of conservation in physics. To refute the proof provided by "Adam Smith" above me, one can see that in step eight where (x - 4) was divided from both sides. Since 2 + 2 = 4, step eight is really a division by zero which is impermissible in mathematics. Often dividing by zero or not providing a plus and minus sign after introducing a square root into an equation will allow one to derive statements such as 2 + 2 = 5 or 1 = 0. Because division by zero is undefined and square roots can be either the positive or negative case, assuming one or the other is fallacious reasoning.
2007-03-19 17:31:52
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answer #2
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answered by shadowcrimejas 2
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Think about it in this way:
Any number is made up of infinity, and can be represented by an infinite summation of smaller numbers. 1 = 1/2 + 1/4 + 1/8 + 1/16 + 1/32...
Similarly, 2 = 1 + 1/2 + 1/4 + 1/8 + 1/16...
So therefore 2 is just another finite representation of infinity. Similarly, you can find an infinite summation for the number 5. Infinity plus infinity equals infinity (if you just ignore the "finite" word in the definition).
2007-03-19 15:46:54
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answer #3
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answered by J Z 4
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it rather is a variety of programming code, yet incomplete. it skill while (2+2 = genuine) then 5, a variable gets the linked fee 5 if 2+2 = genuine, in Perl is any term which has the effect >=a million genuine and the effect 0=fake, so 2+2 = genuine (in Perl) then a variable which you probably did no longer point out gets the linked fee 5
2016-10-19 03:21:37
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answer #4
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answered by pereyra 4
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Yes, if you aren't calculating in base 10. In base 10, no, 2+2=4. In another base, 2+2 can equal 5. You just need to figure out which base.
2007-03-19 15:54:26
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answer #5
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answered by eri 7
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It is an old mathematical trick, demonstrated by Adam Smith (one of your answerers). There are many ways to make false results look real (politicians do it all the time! :) Adam demonstrates one of them, and probably your teacher did too.
Look carefully at the proof that is used. There is always a falacy in there somewhere. Watch especially for division by zero, hidden by variables. For example:
A=B, B=C, C=D
and then later in the proof something like:
X=Y/D-A
Notice that since A=D, that is division by zero, an impossibility in normal mathematics (some advanced mathematics allows for division by zero, as it does for the square root of -1).
2007-03-19 19:28:06
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answer #6
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answered by Don P 5
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2 and 2 make 22.
2007-03-19 17:27:52
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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It is really just a play on numbers and number theory, but it can be shown that 2+2=5:
1. let x = 2+2
2. (multiply by x-1) x(x-1)=(2+2)(x-1)
3. x^2 -x = 2x+2x-2-2
4. (subtract 3x) x^2-4x=x-4
5. (multiply by x-5) (x-5)(x^2-4x)=(x-5)(x-4)
6. x^3-9x^2+20x=x^2-9x+20
7. x(x-4)(x-5)=(x-4)(x-5)
8. (divide by x-4) x^2-5x=x-5
9. (add 4x) x^2-x=5x-5
10. x(x-1)=5(x-1)
11. (divide by (x-1)) x=5
since we started with x=2+2, therefore 2+2=5
2007-03-19 16:08:47
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answer #8
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answered by Adam Smith 2
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it's not possible. 2 and 2 make 4
2007-03-19 15:45:38
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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Nope
2007-03-19 16:10:13
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answer #10
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answered by Mustlovesonnets 2
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