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...has striven equally hard for an equal # of years to become content with being poor? That's a question I came up with the other day. Please answer! You don't have to be Ghandi or anything to answer. : )

2007-03-19 14:49:46 · 17 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities Philosophy

17 answers

The first one. Conformity scks!0!

2007-03-19 15:29:39 · answer #1 · answered by Alex 5 · 0 0

I think you are trying to confuse the issue between one man who has tried each direction. The better question is who is the better man, the one who has driven himself to gain money, to the exclusion of everything else? Or the man who accepts the fact that he will never be rich and is comfortable with what he has. I am a man who will never be rich, I do not try to get rich, but rather make full use of the things I have. I have lived with much, and I have lived with little. I don't want to try to give you the idea I am something special. You will find that people in poorer countries don't always know they are poor. They have friends, family, relatives. Accepting poor is easy, striving for riches is a lifelong goal, and you usually never get enough.

2007-03-19 15:07:52 · answer #2 · answered by Nbruce 2 · 0 0

Both. It depends how you look at it and the circumstances these men were in. For example if the poor content guy was in the dessert-and lived alone, away from humanity and no means into the world, it was a great thing for him to be content. Then again, if this man was placed in the business world while being poor and if he strived to become rich and he did that... good for him.

2007-03-19 14:55:47 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Okay, but let's look at the other side of the coin: I meet a guy who's say 25, with no job, no skills, living in mom's basement. And worse yet, he doesn't care. He likes living the "easy life". The fact that I choose not to date him isn't because he has no money, it's because he has no motivation. My future with him is that he'll move into MY basement and play video games all day. One of the things that attracts me to a man isn't money, it's self-pride. It's motivation to pull his weight, to contribute to society. On the other hand, if he's simply unemployed because of the economy and actively trying to work, then I'd have no problem with him whatsoever. I think you're incorrect in your assumption a woman will leave her husband if he loses his job. Some will, sure. But most won't. That said, there may be situations when a marriage falls apart after the loss of a job, but could easily be that the couple has found financial hardship something that brings them to blows, or that the man has become bitter or resentful of his wife working when he's not. In short, these things are more complex than meets the eye. Marry or don't, but please have a clear understanding of the reasons you choose the path you do.

2016-03-29 06:48:35 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

What is there that would make the one man better than the other? That would depend on your definition of better.

We can decide later if the goal of one is more desirable than the other's goal. For now, it would seem that both men are striving to achieve certain goals. One man wants riches, while the other man wants contentment. Both are seeking an end.

I say we give them both an award if they have done what it take to accomplish their respective ends.

2007-03-19 15:08:30 · answer #5 · answered by realbigwalrus@sbcglobal.net 2 · 0 0

Actually, most guys who were poor make good businessmen. Street smarts come into effect. It's as along as he doesn't forget his roots. Now a person who is content with being poor, obviously has faith, which is worth more than gold. Think for a second, he really doesn't have the headaches as a person who is rich.

2007-03-19 15:03:10 · answer #6 · answered by Da Mick 5 · 0 0

What is money? What does it mean? If money means anything then it is the former. If money means nothing then it is the latter.

You must first find what money (pieces of paper with numbers written on them) means before you can answer the question.

Personally money has no value, it's only value is what it can be traded for. The money itslef means nothing. Therefore I would say that it is the latter, the man who has struggled to be content with what he has. This shows us for what we are, the struggle to over come our base impulses of greed and envy.

Hope this helps.

2007-03-19 15:23:34 · answer #7 · answered by Arthur N 4 · 0 0

Poor in what. Is the rich man loveless? Possible. The poor man who is content in his poverty is happy that it is such a poverty in which he may find content. Such a man in such a poverty is free of envy. But when the Judgment in the poor man is pricked beyond endurance in the unreasoning Judgment of an other, then what could be envy is hatred. Such is the possible nature of withheld private property.

2007-03-19 15:16:28 · answer #8 · answered by Psyengine 7 · 0 0

If you are happy with what you have, then you are truly rich. The wealthy miser is the poorest person on earth.

I would rather be poor and happy than rich and unhappy, happiness is too precious to sell for a few coins.

2007-03-19 15:15:44 · answer #9 · answered by PBeaud 3 · 0 0

Great question! A poor man who is content of being poor,did not use his given talent (mind) to improve his self.therefore he is liability to his world. A man who strive to improve his self,spiritually,monetary,emotionally,intelligent wise is an asset to this world..

2007-03-19 15:15:09 · answer #10 · answered by Vannili 6 · 0 0

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