Probably not. The slave trade was very lucrative for the British, and although abolition was a hot topic in England in the late 1700's and early 1800's, most people and politicians turned a blind eye to slavery because it was the source of wealth for many English merchants, shipowners, and the well-to-do. Many in Parliament were slave-owners. For a great book on the subject of Bristish slave trade and eventual abolition, try "Bury the Chains". I forget the author's name.
2007-03-19 14:28:51
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answer #1
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answered by cjones1303 4
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I think not. With the large raw materials access that the American colonies would have provided, it would have been very easy for England to re-think their ending of slavery.
One of the reasons that England ended slavery in 1834 is that slavery itself was becoming unprofitable within the empire. As England became a more industrial economy, the use of slaves was not economically feasible, due to the need for semi-educated workers (slaves were generally kept illiterate and ignorant). This can be seen also in the United States, where the northern half of the country was becoming more industrialized, and the southern part of the country was still generally agrarian. Interestingly enough, slavery was on the decline in the southern United States as early as the late 18th century, but it took the invention of the cotton gin to reinvigorate slavery in the South. As the cotton gin made slavery a much more profitable institution, the southern states became much more intractable in their adherence to slavery.
A possible outcome of the attempt to end slavery in the Americas by England in the 1830's would be the potential dissolution of the American colonies, with the southern colonies attempting to wrench themselves away from their foreign masters. In essence, a civil war.
2007-03-19 21:18:10
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answer #2
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answered by PBeaud 3
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Maybe, but you have to look at the fact that Britian it self abolished slavery. Plus, you never know what the colonist might have pulled to get out of British rule. It probably would have happened anyway, just like Canada, Australia, and India. So, to question, they would have most likely ended slavery as soon as they did in Britian itself.
2007-03-19 21:07:46
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answer #3
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answered by Just answer my questions 2
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nope
the British would have loved the revenue the south could provide with the free labor......and I think the revolution would have taken place later just like the War of 1812 (when the British refused to respect our rules) we would have tried again and again to be free.
2007-03-19 21:12:17
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answer #4
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answered by miatalise12560 6
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there's no way to tell. i think there would have been a civil war anyway
2007-03-19 21:07:27
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answer #5
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answered by dirka 3
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