My mom died and left a will and later verbally willed that her house be a homestead. The will states she is to divide among all of her beneficiaries. Then at the end of the will it says that she give her one daughter everything. This is quite confusing. How can one divide among her sisters and brothers and then be given everything. The verbal will came after the written will. So do the verbal will have any effect to overide the written will?
I need feedback concerning this cause my sister is threating sucide cause she will have to move out of the house. Any comments will be appreciated and honest ones.
2007-03-19
12:08:29
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6 answers
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asked by
JoJoBa
6
in
Family & Relationships
➔ Marriage & Divorce