Disorder question?

Question

More males than females suffer from color blindness. Speculate as to why females who have Turner's syndrome have a similar incidence of color blindness as males.

Answer 1

Turner's Syndrome is caused by having only one X-chromosome instead of two. The karyotype is describes as having XO.

Males have colorblindness more than females because males have only one X-chromosome. Colorblindness is caused by a recessive allele. Males who get this recessive allele don't have another X-chromosome with another allele for this trait, so it's like they don't have a second chance to get the dominant allele.

Females with Turner's Syndrome have the same chance of getting the colorblindness allele and the same lack of a second chance for getting the dominant allele.

Answer 2

Females who have turner's syndrome are missing a sex chromosome. They have XO instead of XX. The gene for colourblindness is recessive and found on the X chromosome.

Males get it moe often because they only have one X gene (XY) and if the colourblindness gene is present it will be expressed. In females with a full set of chromosomes (XX) both X genes would need tho have the colourblindness gene for it to be expressed.

Since Turner's syndrome only has one X gene if the coulourblindnass gene is present it will be expressed giving the same frequency as males.

Answer 3

Perhaps the alele for Turner's syndrome is Sex Linked. However, it would not be sound to reason that if it is proven that it is Sex Linked, that this is the reason for the statistical occurance in females. This is the area of speculation where Occum's Razor really becomes important. Hence: in no case may we interpret an outcome to be the result of a higher psychical faculty; if it can be viewed as the excercise of one which stand lower of the psychological scale.