I have performed a mid-parent, offspring regression analysis and have gome up with the result of 1.27. How is this possible? My tutor has told me there is a reason, but wont tell me why.
It is for my degree level dissertation, so I really need to explain this, and well.
Thank you
2007-03-19 04:01:17 · 2 answers · asked by Fred 3 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Biology
Heterosis. F1 > P1. Also called overdominance. Look up the details.
2007-03-19 07:46:26 · answer #1 · answered by Norwich 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
as far as i know, heritability is probability. so 1 would be like 100% , but i guess, theoretically, you can have probabilities higher than 1, but i wouldnt expect this in a natural situation.
if im thinking about the same heritability, h^2 > 1 means that environmental factors have absolutely no effect on genotype of offspring.
2007-03-19 05:44:09 · answer #2 · answered by Telomere 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋